INPUTOUTPUT QUIZ 001
Questions 1 to 5
Study the following information and answer the given questions
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranged them following a particular rule in each step, the following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : please 60 10 open 55 35 the 78 19 door 15 90
Step 1 : 90 please 60 10 open 55 35 the 78 19 door 15
Step 2 : 90 door please 60 10 open 55 35 the 78 19 15
Step 3 : 90 door 78 please 60 10 open 55 35 the 19 15
Step 4 : 90 door 78 60 please 10 open 55 35 the 19 15
Step 5 : 90 door 78 60 open please 10 55 35 the 19 15
Step 6 : 90 door 78 60 open 55 please 10 35 the 19 15
Step 7 : 90 door 78 60 open 55 35 please 10 the 19 15
Step 8 : 90 door 78 60 open 55 35 please 19 10 the 15
Step 9 : 90 door 78 60 open 55 35 please 19 15 10 the
Step 10 : 90 door 78 60 open 55 35 please 19 15 the 10
Step 10 is the last step of the rearrangement of the input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, Find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
 Input :67 yes 42 19 today 90 18 never 54 32 go 10
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 4
(e) None of these
Answer Option: 2
Solution »
Input :67 yes 42 19 today 90 18 never 54 32 go 10
Step 1: 90 67 yes 42 19 today 18 never 54 32 go 10
Step 2: 90 go 67 yes 42 19 today 18 never 54 32 10
Step 3: 90 go 67 54 yes 42 19 today 18 never 32 10
Step 4: 90 go 67 54 never yes 42 19 today 18 32 10
Step 5: 90 go 67 54 never 42 yes 19 today 18 32 10
Step 6: 90 go 67 54 never 42 32 yes 19 today 18 10
Step 7: 90 go 67 54 never 42 32 today yes 19 18 10
Step 8: 90 go 67 54 never 42 32 today 19 yes 18 10
Step 9: 90 go 67 54 never 42 32 today 19 18 yes 10
 Step 3 : 86 game 72 54 ground 12 33 in 46 play 63 25
Which of the following will be step 6?
(a) 86 game 72 63 ground 54 46 12 33 in play 25
(b) 86 game 72 63 54 ground 12 33 in 46 play 25
(c) No such step
(d) None of these
Answer Option: 1
Solution »
Step 3: 86 game 72 54 ground 12 33 in 46 play 63 25
Step 4: 86 game 72 63 54 ground 12 33 in 46 play 25
Step 5: 86 game 72 63 ground 54 12 33 in 46 play 25
Step 6: 86 game 72 63 ground 54 46 12 33 in play 25
 Input : 76 am 51 46 where 32 24 at school 18 05, How many steps will required to complete the output ?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer Option :1
Solution »
Input : 76 am 51 46 where 32 24 at school 18 05
1: 76 am 51 46 at where 32 24 school 18 05
2: 76 am 51 46 at 32 where 24 school 18 05
3: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 where school 18 05
4: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 school where 18 05
5: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 school 18 where 05
6: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 school 18 05 where
 Input :83 apple 71 56 fruits 45 39 on the 18 05 table, then what will be the 3rd step ?
(a) 83 apple 71 56 45 39 fruits on 05 18 the table
(b) apple 56 71 83 fruits 45 39 on 18 05 the table
(c) 83 apple 71 56 fruits 45 39 on 18 05 table the
(d) 83 apple 56 71 fruits 45 39 on 18 05 the table
Answer Option :3
Solution »
Input : 83 apple 71 56 fruits 45 39 on the 18 05 table
1: 83 apple 71 56 fruits 45 39 on 18 the 05 table
2: 83 apple 71 56 fruits 45 39 on 18 05 the table
3: 83 apple 71 56 fruits 45 39 on 18 05 table the
 Input :76 am 51 46 where 32 24 at school 18 05
18 is placed in which place in step 5?
(a) Fourth to the right
(b) Second to the right of at
(c) Third to the right
(d) Third to the left
Answer Option :3
Solution »
Input : 76 am 51 46 where 32 24 at school 18 05
1: 76 am 51 46 at where 32 24 school 18 05
2: 76 am 51 46 at 32 where 24 school 18 05
3: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 where school 18 05
4: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 school where 18 05
5: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 school 18 where 05
6: 76 am 51 46 at 32 24 school 18 05 where
Directions (610): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: xenon 63 century 51 88 69 glow goal 81 hearing
Step I: century xenon 63 51 69 glow goal 81 hearing 88
Step II: glow century xenon 63 51 69 goal hearing 88 81
Step III: goal glow century xenon 63 51 hearing 88 81 69
Step IV: hearing goal glow century xenon 51 88 81 69 63
Step V: xenon hearing goal glow century 88 81 69 63 51
And step V is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below;
Input: 41 do recover 21 49 muffin contra little 29 Alpha 53 44
 How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
(a) IV
(b) V
(c) VI
(d) VII
(e) None of these
 Which Step number would be the following output? little do contra Alpha recover21 muffin 29 53 49 44 41
(a) III
(b) II
(c) VII
(d) IV
(e) There will be no such step
 Which of the following would be the step I?
(a) Alpha 41 contra recover21 muffin little 49 29 53 44
(b) Alpha contra 21 recover41 muffin little 29 53 44 49
(c) Alpha 41 do recover21 44 muffin contra little 49 53 29
(d) Alpha 41 do recover44 21 contra little 29 49 53
(e) None of these
 In step V, which of the following word/number would be on the 6th position (from the right)?
(a) 44
(b) 21
(c) 49
(d) recover
(e) Alpha
 Which of the following would be the final arrangement?
(a) recover muffin little do contra Alpha 53 44 49 41 29 21
(b) recover muffin little do contra Alpha 53 21 44 41 29 49
(c) recover muffin little do contra Alpha 53 49 44 21 29 41
(d) recover muffin little do contra Alpha 53 49 44 41 29 21
(e) None of these
Answer :
 (c); Logic: – The machine rearranges numbers and words in each step. Words are arranged in alphabetical order to the left side whereas numbers are arranged in descending order to the right side.
Input: 41 do recover 21 49 muffin contra little 29 Alpha 53 44
Step I: alpha 41 do recover 21 49 muffin contra little 29 44 53
Step II: contra alpha 41 do recover 21 muffin little 29 44 53 49
Step III: do contra alpha 41 recover 21 muffin little 29 53 49 44
Step IV: little do contra alpha recover 21 muffin 29 53 49 44 41
Step V: muffin little do contra alpha recover 21 53 49 44 41 29
Step VI: recover muffin little do contra alpha 53 49 44 41 29 21
 (d);
 (e)
 (b)
 (d)
Directions (1115): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.
Input : 2 18 ear 13 etch rosy lappy 53 37 heir 40
Step 1: 2 18 gat 13 gtcj tosa nappa 53 37 jeit 40
Step 2: 2 gat 18 13 gtcj tosa nappa 53 37 jeit 40
Step 3: 2 gat 13 gtcj 18 tosa nappa 53 37 jeit 40
Step 4: 2 gat 13 gtcj 37 jeit 18 tosa nappa 53 40
Step 5: 2 gat 13 gtcj 37 jeit 53 nappa 18 tosa 40
And step 5 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules
followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.
Input: 83 privy 73 evade 31 sludge cattle 61 46 caveat 26
 Which step number would be the following output? “31 eattlg 61 eaveav 83 rriva 73 gvadg uludgg 46 26”
(a) Step IV
(b) Step III
(c) Step V
(d) Step VI
(e) None of the Above
 What is the position of ‘rriva’ in step 5?
(a) Seventh from the right
(b) Sixth from the left
(c) Fourth from the right
(d) Sixth from the right
(e) None of these
 In the second last step, what is the sum of the second element from the right side and third element from the left side?
(a) 99
(b) 72
(c) 107
(d) 92
(e) 149
 Which step is last step of this given inputoutput arrangement?
(a) IV
(b) V
(c) VI
(d) VII
(e) None of these
 Which of the following would be at the ninth position from the left end in penultimate step?
(a) 26
(b) uludgg
(c) 83
(d) rriva
(e) 46
Answer :
(1115):
(i) Every first and last alphabet of every word is replaced by its upcoming second alphabet in alphabetical series.
(ii) one prime number and one word arrange in ascending order from left to right in each step but not in 1 st step.
Example: 2 gat
(iii) After arranging all prime number with the word, All even numbers are arranged with the word in ascending order.
INPUT: 83 privy 73 evade 31 sludge cattle 61 46 caveat 26
Step 1: 83 rriva 73 gvadg 31 uludgg eattlg 61 46 eaveav 26
Step 2: 31 eattlg 83 rriva 73 gvadg uludgg 61 46 eaveav 26
Step 3: 31 eattlg 61 eaveav 83 rriva 73 gvadg uludgg 46 26
Step 4: 31 eattlg 61 eaveav 73 gvadg 83 rriva uludgg 46 26
Step 5: 31 eattlg 61 eaveav 73 gvadg 83 rriva 26 uludgg 46
 (b)
 (c)
 (c)
 (b)
 (b)
 Published in INPUTOUTPUT
ALPHA NUMERIC SERIES QUIZ 001
 198, 194, 185, 169, ?
(a) 92
(b) 112
(c) 136
(d) 144
(e) None of these
 2, 7, 27, 107, 427, ?
(a) 1262
(b) 1707
(c) 4027
(d) 4207
(e) None of these
 AZY, BUT, CXW, DWV, ?
(a) EVA
(b) EVU
(c) VEU
(d) VUE
(e) None of these
Direction (45): In the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps will complete the given letter series?
 a_ca_bcaa_ b_ a _bbc_
(a) babcac
(b) bcabca
(c) bbacca
(d) baccab
(e) None of these
 _ba_bab_babb_b
(a) b a a a
(b) a b b b
(c) b a b b
(d) a b a b
(e) None of these
ANSWER & EXPLANATION
 (d):
The pattern is 4, 9, 16, …. i.e. 2, 3, 4, …. So, missing term = 169 5 = 169 25 = 144.
 (b):
The pattern is + (5*1), +(5*2 ), +(5*4), +(5*8), +(5*16)
 (b):
1st letter: A (+1)→ B (+1)→ C (+1)→ D (+1)→E
2nd letter: Z (5)→U +(52)= +3→X (32)= 1→ W (+1 2)=1→V
3rd letter: Y (5)→ T +(52)= +3→W (32)= 1→V (+1 2)=1→U
 (a) ;
The sequence given is abc/aabc/aabbc/aabbcc
 (b)
The sequence given is ab/abb/abbb/abbbb
 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ?
(a) WVTS
(b) WXUV
(c) WVST
(d) WVTX
(e) None of these
 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 463, 452, 439, 424, ?
(a) 407
(b) 413
(c) 419
(d) 411
(e) None of these
Answer and Explanation
 (a);
So, there is one gap after 2letter
 (a);
The difference between numbers –11, –13, –15 & –17
so, next no. is 424 – 17 = 407
 320,325, ?, 335, 340
(a) 440
(b) 410
(c) 330
(d) 360
(e) None of these
 Y, W, T, P, K, E, X, ?, ,
(a) G, H
(b) P, G
(c) R, G
(d) S, R
(e) None of these
Answer and Explanation
 Ans.(c)\
320 + 5, 325 + 5, 330+5, 335+5, 340+5
 Ans. (b)
 A D _ P Y
(a) G
(b) M
(c) I
(d) L
(e) None of these
 4, 7, 16, ____, 133
(a) 43
(b) 83
(c) 33
(d) 73
(e) None of these
Answer and Explanation
 (c);
Alphabets are placed according to the square of numbers 1,2,3,4, and 5.
 (a);
 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127,?
(a) 316
(b) 1135
(c) 1288
(d) 2254
(e) None of these
 Z, ?, T, ?, N, ?, H, ?, B
(a) W, Q, K, E
(b) W, R, K, E
(c) X, Q, K, E
(d) X, R, K, E
(e) None of these
Answer and Explanation:
 (b):
The pattern is x3, +4, x5, +6, x 7 … So, missing term = 1127 + 8 = 1135.
 (a):
Z (6)→T (6)→N –(6)→ H (6)→B
Z (3)→ W (3)→T (3)→Q (3)→N (3)→K ( 3)→H (3)→ E
 Jkl Abc Mno Def PqR Gh?
(a) h
(b) i
(c) q
(d) S
(e) None of these
 1, 4, 10, 19, 31,?
(a) 43
(b) 46
(c) 50
(d) 55
(e) None of these
 (b);
There are two alternating series and the successive letters are given in series. Again, the middle letter of each term is written in a small letter (lower case.)
 (b)
1+3 =4 +6 =10 +9 =19 +12 =31 +15=46
 Published in ALPHA NUMERIC SERIES
STATEMENT ARGUMENT QUIZ 001
Directions (17): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “Strong” arguments and “Weak” arguments as they relate to the question. “Strong” arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the questions. “Weak” arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the questions or may not be directly related to a trivial aspect of the questions. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak agreement.
Give answer
(a) If only argument I is strong
(b) If only argument II is strong
(c) If either I or II is strong
(d) If neither I nor II is strong
(e) If both I and II are strong
 Statement: Should there be only one rate of interest for term deposits of varying durations in banks?
Arguments:
I. No, people will refrain from keeping the money for longer duration resulting into reduction of liquidity level of banks.
II. Yes, this will be much simpler for the common people and they may be encouraged to keep more money in banks.  Statements: Should labour reforms be immediately introduced in India?
Arguments:
 Yes, this will help increase the productivity in all the sectors in general and in the public sector in particular.
 No, many other countries have not implemented this so far.
 Statements: Should the system of paying the minimum purchase price for farmers for wheat, rice and the like be scrapped in India?
Arguments:
1. No, farmers who produce our staple food must get a decent return on their investment and labour in a welfare state like India.
2.Yes, it is an outdated practice which we must discard.
Solution(13):
 Ans.(a)
Sol.
The higher rate of interest attracts people to deposit money for a longer duration. If a higher rate of interest is available for a short duration, then people will refrain from keeping the money for a longer duration.
So, arguments I is strong while II is not.
 Ans. (a)
Sol.
Argument I is strong because labour reforms will encourage the labour to work more efficiently, which will be helpful in increasing the productivity.
Argument II is not strong because basic needs of India are different from other countries.
 Ans. (a)
Sol.
Argument I is strong because of the welfare state theory.
Argument II is not strong because it does not give a proper reason.
 Statement: Should private institutions be given over to government institutions?
Arguments
 Yes, standard of education will improve.
 No, the standard of education will diminish.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either argument I or II is strong
(d) Neither argument I nor II is strong
(e) Both arguments I and II are strong
Solution: 4
Both arguments are incorrect since the standard of education of an institution, in general, cannot be related to whether the institution is private or a government one.
 Statement: Should schools in India have only one board of education?
Arguments:
 Yes, it will create uniformity and equality in education.
 No, it will reduce chances of either quality education or/and may affect literacy rate.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either argument I or II is strong
(d) Neither argument I nor II is strong
(e) Both arguments I and II are strong
Solution: 2
India is a huge country with many languages, cultures, and religions. Under such circumstances, where many students are dropping out, if the system is made restricted to a certain language or medium, there might be a serious drop in the literacy rate of the country.
 Statement: Is cashless economy the right way for India to become digitalized?
Argument:
 Yes, we live in a digital age and so it’s luxury.
 No, India has a wide population that is illiterate and hence, there has to be an education for the same instead of plunging the country into a new system.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either argument I or II is strong
(d) Neither argument I nor II is strong Incorrect
(e) Both arguments I and II are strong
Solution: 2
Having a cashless economy is one of the aims of digital India campaign by the government. Option 1 is not the correct answer as it provides a weak argument in support of the question. However, the second option is correct as it provides a logical argument of why the imposition of the cashless economy might not be the best option.
 Statement: Should the government impose a ban on luxury resorts?
Arguments:
 No, affluent tourists would have no place to stay as they will not stay in lesser resorts.
 Yes, they facilitate operation of international criminals.
(a)Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either argument I or II is strong
(d) Neither argument I nor II is strong
(e) Both arguments I and II are strong
Solution: 1
Here, we do not have any evidence to show that international criminals operate in luxury resorts. Also, even if they do, a ban cannot be imposed on all resorts. This is a weak argument. The other argument is strong because affluent tourists stay in luxury resorts and do not stay in lesser resorts. The government cannot, without any reason, ban the affluent from doing what they want and thereby curtail the rights of one section of the society.
Directions (8 13): each of the following questions consist of a statement followed by two arguments I and II. Choose the best answer from the given options.
 Statement: Should a lot of money be spent on promoting movies?
Arguments:
 Yes. It is an essential component of attracting more audience.
 No. it only leads to wastage of resources.
 Only A
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A or B
 Both A and B
Solution: 1
The benefit of producing a movie lies in the fact that the film earns money along with creative appreciation. These two things are only possible if the viewers watch these movies. The best means to attract viewers is through promotions where the movies are officially introduced allowing the viewers to analyze whether a particular movie is worth meeting their expectations.
Hence, argument A strongly justifies the given statement. Argument B which talks about the wastage of money through promotions is quite weak because promotions are investments so that the gain at the end can be better. It is no way that it can be considered as ‘only’ wastage of money.
Hence, 1 is the correct answer.
 Statement: Should there be compulsory police verification before a person applies for a passport?
Arguments:
 No. This is a sheer intrusion into the privacy of an individual.
 Yes. It is a very valuable document and it is necessary to ensure that it does not go into the wrong hands.
 Only A
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A or B
 Both A and B
Solution: 2
Passports are significant official documents which act as identity proof. Additionally, they can be used to cross the boundary of the home country and it is possible that criminals can escape the country. Thus, it is quite important for an individual to undergo a police verification process to possess a passport. If a delicate document like this goes into the wrong hands, a lot of law and order problems may arise. Thus, argument A which talks about intrusion into privacy is a matter of less concern than the matter of national security. So, B is the only strong argument in relation to the given statement. Hence, 2 is the correct answer.
 Statement: Should taxes on air conditioners be further increased?
Arguments:
 Yes. The air conditioner is a luxury item and only rich people buy them.
 No. Air conditioners are bought by the poor too.
 Only A
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A or B
 Both A and B
Solution: 4
Taxes levied on a particular item does not depend on the financial capacity of the consumers. Hence it cannot be argued whether the tax on air conditioner be increased or decreased depending on the purchasing power of the buyers.
Hence both the arguments are too weak to support the given statement. Thus, the correct answer is 4.
 Statement: Should the practice of transfer of subinspectors from police stations of one city to those of another be stopped?
Arguments:
 No. Transfer of officers is a routine administrative matter and we must continue it.
 Yes, it involves a lot of government expenditure and causes inconvenience to many in comparison to the benefits it yields.
 Only A
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A nor B
 Both A and B
Solution: 4
Argument A calls for continuing an official custom just for the sake of it. It does not give any other concrete reason for continuing the routine transfer of subinspectors. It is not necessary that it is right to practice a ‘routine administrative matter’. Statement B on the other hand talks about transfers leading to a lot of government expenditure and causing inconvenience to many as compared to the benefits it yields. Now a government should continue or discontinue a practice on the basis of the output yielded. Certainly, if continuing a practice yields better outcome than discontinuing it, the practice should be continued. The concern, thus, should not be the expenditure, procedure or convenience of the people involved in the process.
Hence, neither of the statements is strong enough to support the given statement. The correct answer is 4.
 Statement: Should government services be linked with an academic degree and diploma?
Arguments:
 No. A large number of people with meagre academic qualifications will apply.
 No. Importance of higher education will be diminished.
 Only A
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A or B
 Both A and B
Solution: 2
One of the major reasons for acquiring a higher education is to obtain government jobs. Thus, linking jobs with degrees will render the activity of obtaining higher studies futile. Hence, argument B follows a strong argument in support of the given statement. The first argument is weak because if the provisions are at all changed, even the people with meagre academic qualifications will be deemed to apply. Hence, the correct answer is 2.
 Statement: Should the railways in India be privatized like other private sector enterprises?
Arguments:
 Yes. This is the only way to bring in competitiveness and provide better services to the public.
 No this will pose a threat to the national security of our country as multinational companies will enter into the fray.
 Only
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A nor B
 Both A and B
Solution: 4
Argument A is weak because privatization is not the only means to provide better services to the public. Even the government can take measures to provide good services. Argument B talks about multinational companies posing threat to national security of our country, which is totally a bizarre idea. Multinational companies cannot create national crises which pose threat to the well being of a country. Thus, 4 is the correct answer.
 Statement: A well known English proverb states that you will always attract more flies with honey than with vinegar.
Argument:
 Flies are pests and can be attracted to their early demise with honey.
 English proverbs may have double meanings.
 Only Argument I is
 Only Argument II is implicit.
 Either Argument I or II is implicit.
 Neither Argument I nor II is implicit.
 Both the Argument I and II are implicit.
Solution: 2
Argument (I) considers the flies to be pests and assumes that one needs to kill them by attracting them with honey. This might be a vague Argument since the statement is a proverb. What is conveyed through a proverb does not necessarily carry the literal meaning but usually they are figurative in nature. So Argument I is not implicit. Since a proverb may have a hidden meaning and it can also be expressing some other point, Argument (II) is more implicit.
Hence option 2 is the correct answer.
 Statement:
Should internal assessment in schools be abolished?
Arguments:
 Yes. This will help in reducing the possibility of favouritism.
 No. Teaching faculty will lose control over students.
 Only A
 Only B
 Either A or B
 Neither A or B
 Both A and B
Solution: 1
Argument A is strong because there is always a possibility of the practice of favouritism. This will affect the grading system and prove to be unfair to many students. B forms a weak argument because internal assessments are not means to gain control over students. Even if teachers do not evaluate the internal assessments, they will continue to mentor pupil. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
 Published in STATEMENT ARGUMENT
CODING AND DECODING QUIZ 001
 If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT. Then how is BOMBAY coded in that language?
(a) CPNCBX
(b) CPNCBZ
(c) CPOCBZ
(d) CQOCBZ
Answer Option: 2
Explanation:
Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
 In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?
(a) CHRONRD
(b) DSOESPI
(c) ESJTPTF
(d) ESOPSID
Answer Option: 1
Explanation:
Each letter in the word is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
 In certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code PAROLE will be written as?
(a) NCPQJG
(b) NCQPJG
(c) RCPQJK
(d) RCTQNG
Answer Option: 1
Explanation:
The letters at odd positions are each moved two steps backward and those at even positions are each moved two steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
 If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO, which word would be coded as LKUMB?
(a) MMXQG
(b) MLVNC
(c) KJVLA
(d) MJVLC
Answer Option: 1
Explanation:
The first, second, third, fourth and fifth letters in the word are respectively one, two, three, four and five steps ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.
 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?
(a) 5279431
(b) 5978213
(c) 8251896
(d) 8543691
Answer Option: 3
Explanation:
The alphabets are coded as follows:
D E L H I C A L C U T T A
7 3 5 4 1 8 2 5 8 9 6 6 2
So, in CALICUT, C is coded as 8, A as 2, L as 5, I as 1, U as 9 and T as 6. Thus, the code for CALICUT is 8251896.
 In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code?
(a) 318826
(b) 318286
(c) 618826
(d) 338816
Answer Option: a
Explanation:
The alphabets are coded as shown:
R I P L E F
6 1 3 8 2 9
So, in PILLER, P is coded as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2 and R as 6. Thus, the code for PILLER is 318826.
 In a code language, ‘mok dan sil’ means ‘nice big house’, ‘fit kon dan’ means ‘house is good’ and ‘warm tir fit’ means ‘cost is high’. Which word stands for ‘good’ in that language?
(a) mok
(b) dan
(c) fit
(d) kon
Answer Option: 4
Explanation:
In the first and second statements, the common code word is ‘dan’ and the common word is ‘house’. So, ‘dan’ stands for ‘house’. In the second and third statements, the common code word is ‘fit’. So, ’fit’ stands for ‘is’. Thus, in the second statement, ‘kon’ stands for ‘good’.
 In certain code language, ‘Tom Kun Sud’ means “Dogs are barking’, ‘Kun Jo Mop’ means ‘Dogs and Horses’ and ‘Mut Tom Ko’ means ‘Donkeys are mad’. Which word in that language means ‘barking’?
(a) Sud
(b) Kun
(c) Jo
(d) Tom
Answer Option: 1
Explanation:
In the first and second statements, the common code word is ‘Kun’ and the common word is ‘Dogs’. So, ‘Kun’ means ‘Dogs’.
In the first and third statements, the common code word is ‘Tom’ and the common word is ‘are’. So, ‘Tom’ means ‘are’. Thus, using the first statement, ‘Sud’ means ‘barking’.
 In a certain code language, ‘479’ means ‘fruit is sweet’, ‘248’ means ‘very sweet voice’ and ‘637’ means ‘eat fruit daily’. Which of the following digit stands for ‘is’ in that language?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) Can’t be determined
Answer Option: 2
Explanation:
In the first and second statements, the common code digit is ‘4’ and the common word is ‘sweet’. Hence, ‘4’ means ‘sweet’.
In the first and third statements, the common code digit is ‘7’ and the common word is ‘fruit’. So, ‘7’ means ‘fruit’. Thus, using the first statement we get, ‘9’ means ‘is’.
 In certain code language, ‘253’ means ‘books are old’, ‘546’ means ‘man is old’ and ‘378’ means ‘buy good books’. Which of the following digit stands for ‘are’ in that language?
(a) 2 Correct
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer Option: 1
Explanation:
In the first and second statements, the common code digit is ‘5’ and the common word is ‘old’. Hence, ‘5’ means ‘old’. In the first and third statements, the common code digit is ‘3’ and the common word is ‘books’. So, ‘3’ means ‘books’. Thus, using the first statement, we get ‘2’ means ‘are’.
Directions (1115): Study the information and answer the following questions :
In a certain code language
“honest try to study ” is coded as “BR20 GO8 LO20 BT19”
“work hard win sit ” is coded as ” WA8 PO23 MI23 GI19″
” mind way pen work “is coded as “WI13 ME16 BA23 PO23″
and “star john sky blue” is coded as” IT19 VL2 BK19 MO10”
 What is the code for “final way’?
(a) OI9 BA23
(b) BA23 OI6
(c) BA23 RA9
(d) OU9 BA23
(e) OS9 BR20
 What is the code for ” honest speak’?
(a) GO10 PR19
(b) GO9 PP19
(c) GO8 PP19
(d) GO12 PP12
(e) GO8 PQ19
 Which may be the possible code for “Result”?
(a) TE20
(b) GE18
(c) GH18
(d) TE20
(e) GH21
 What is the code for ‘violet’?
(a) GI22
(b) GO20
(c) GO22
(d) GI20
(e) GH20
 What is the code for “try to honest desire”?
(a) BR20 VR4 GO8 LO20
(b) VE4 GO8 LO20 BR20
(c) VC4 LO20 BR20 GO8
(d) VE8 BR20 GO8 LO20
(e) EV10 BR20 LO20 GO8
Solution (1115):
These are the latest pattern of codingdecoding questions. In these questions we are applying following concept:
11. (b); BA23 OI6
12. (c); GO8 PP19
13. (b); GE18
14. (a); GI22
15. (b); VE4 GO8 LO20 BR20
 Published in CODING AND DECODING
FILL IN THE BALNKS QUIZ 001
 Digital India is the latest The__________ is that what goes missing in the search of a “technological fix” is human beings themselves.
(a) rebuff, frustration
(b) repulse, deference
(c) repulse, consideration
(d) enchantment, irony
(e) increased, pleased
Answer Option :4
Solution »
Few word meanings : enchantment – fascination, irony – satire,
The first fill in the blank (FITB) comes after the definite article ‘the’. We know that articles introduce a noun. So, we expect a noun in the first FITB. If we look at the options, we have two words which can be used here as nouns. ‘Rebuff’ in option (a) and ‘enchantment’ in option (d). Therefore the other options are eliminated.
In option (a) – ‘rebuff’ means rejection and ‘enchantment’ means fascination. If the first FITB has to be ‘rebuff’, the second sentence must contain something regarding rejection or a reason for doing that. However, we do not get any such hint. If something is rejected, then it cannot ‘go missing’ as suggested in the second sentence. There is nothing to ‘go’ for if it is rejected.
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS OPTION (d). ‘Enchantment’ means attraction’. Something ‘goes’ (as suggested in the second sentence) only if there is attraction to walk in that direction. The word ‘irony’ means satire.
 A ________modernity has ________the belief that technology can bring about the liberation of human beings.
(a) inarticulate, abstained
(b) glib, perpetrated
(c) quiet, constrained
(d) uncommunicative, declined
(e) dominate, worried
Answer Option :2
Solution »
glib, perpetrated
glib – superficial, not deep,
perpetrated – perform
The first fill in the blank (FITB) is preceded by ‘A’. So, the word in the first FITB cannot start with a vowel sound. On this count, option (a) and option (d) both can be eliminated. Further, the word modernity being a noun, it should be preceded by an adjective. Thus, option (e) goes out. The choice is between (b) and (c).
Technology can be associated with modernity, and is brought about by modernity. It is a common observation that modernity has encouraged the thought that technology is uplifting for the human race. In option (c), the word ‘constrained’ means restricted. So, according to common sense, this option does not fit.
In option (b), ‘gilb’ means fluent in words, but insincere and shallow. Here, based on the context, ‘perpetrate’ means to spread.THERFORE, OPTION (b) IS THE CORRECT ANSWER.
 The rapid growth and popularity of taxis ‘managed’ by ________across India is a testimony to the fact that public transport and transit facilities remain hopelessly________.
(a) usually, critical
(b) aggregators, inadequate
(c) similarly, adequate
(d) individuality, subjected
(e) particularly, competent
Answer Option :2
Solution »
Aggregatora person or organization that collects information
The first fill in the blank (FITB) is preceded by a preposition ‘by’. As prepositions indicate the arrival of a noun, the word in the first FITB should be a noun. Options (a), (c) and (e) are eliminated.
For the 2^{nd} FITB, the idea is that the transport facilities are hopeless. The second word ‘subjected’ in the option (d) is meaningless in that context. Only the word ‘inadequate’ in option (b) makes sense.
THERFORE, OPTION (b) IS THE CORRECT ANSWER.
 We are in a _________in which 71 per cent of rural India owns mobile phones while 75 per cent of it lives on Rs. 33 per day.
(a) portent
(b) thaumaturgy
(c) conjuncture
(d) wonder
(e) strange
Answer Option :3
Solution »
Without looking at the options, if we try to fill up the blank, which words come to our mind?
Condition, position, etc.
The closest word is conjuncture.
‘conjuncture’ means a state of affairs.
THERFORE, OPTION (c) IS THE CORRECT ANSWER.
 Modi’s Digital India speech at Silicon Valley showed his remarkable continuity with the policies of postindependence governments, which_________ ignored the fundamental bases of development, health and education, leading to_________ failures in eliminating deprivation.
(a) grievously, colossal
(b) pleasant, manikin
(c) harmless, infinitesimal
(d) churlish, diminutive
(e) loathe, diminish
Answer Option :1
Solution »
This is a question where the two words the two fill in the blanks (FITBs) are connected. Here something is being ignored leading to failures. If hugely ignored, then naturally you expect the failure to be huge. If less ignored, the failure will be small. It is like saying that if you hugely ignore your study, then your failure in exam will also be huge.
(2) But, the question can be solved using another logic. Look at the first FITB. It comes before or precedes the verb. Therefore, it can be safely assumed to be connected to the verb, and hence should be an adverb.
Among the options, only the first word of option (a) has an adverb.
THERFORE, OPTION (a) IS THE CORRECT ANSWER.
Word meanings: grievously – painfully, colossal – big.
 This is__ These politicians are socalled _________of democracy and are expected to be role models for the citizens of this country.
(a) childish, future
(b) secular, stars
(c) ashamed, builder
(d) disgraceful, upholders
(e) bias, performance
Answer Option :4
Solution »
The only word which fits with politicians in the 2^{nd} fill in the blank (FITB) is ‘upholders’ which is in option (d).
 The matter of the national anthem is not urgent but is being ruled upon, while the finalisation of a new procedure to appoint judges ________in limbo.
(a) halcyon
(b) inattentive
(c) lethargic
(d) emigrate
(e) remains
Answer Option :5
Solution »
Word meanings:
Halcyon happy and peaceful.
Emigrate leave one’s own country in order to settle permanently in another.
Limbo unfinished, incomplete, in abeyance, unattended to.
Based on the context, the only word that fits in is ‘remains’.
 The oddeven scheme may be a welcome intervention to reduce traffic _______in the Union Territory, but the decision to clamp down on surge pricing by aggregators such as Uber and Ola, which is set to continue even after Phase Two of the oddeven scheme ends on April 30, is________ .
(a) gala performance, unbiased
(b) opener, disadvantageous
(c) congestion, counterproductive
(d) premiere, detrimental
(e) preview, differential
Answer Option :3
Solution »
The only word which can be associated with traffic is ‘congestion’ in option (c). The contrasting word ‘but’ used after “Union Territory’ demands that the word in the 2^{nd} fill in the blank should be opposite of ‘welcome intervention’ used in the first part of the sentence. Therefore, the 2^{nd} word should be ‘counterproductive’ in option (c).
 Depending upon how humanity chooses to use it, technology can enhance or________ any aspect of life.
(a) depressed
(b) finish
(c) problem
(d) hinder
(e) featured
Answer Option :4
Solution »
The structure of the sentence makes it clear that the word in the fill in the blank should be opposite in nature to the word ‘enhance’. ‘Enhance’ means to increase. The closest antonym of ‘enhance’ is hinder in option (d), which means to obstruct or restrain.
 It’s really ________ that major political parties have ________advertisements which attack prominent political personalities.
(a) surprising, issued
(b) usual, favoured
(c) challenging, created
(d) discernible, raised
(e) striking, directed
Answer Option :1
Solution »
The correct expression is ‘issued advertisements’.
 People invented ways of carrying both conversation and written communication between their communities to keep in _________with one another as travel became simpler.
(a) lines
(b) faith
(c) distance
(d) touch
(e) check
Answer Option :4
Solution »
‘keep in touch’ is the correct expression for communication or contact with others.
 As families and friends have moved away from one another, the telephone, even its cellular form, has allowed humanity to _________the necessary links among its members.
(a) maintain
(b) teleport
(c) cut
(d) curb
(e) regulation
Answer Option :1
Solution »
If we attempt the question without looking at the sentences, the word ‘keep’ or a related word may come to our mind. Therefore, the correct answer is the word ‘maintain’ which is similar in meaning.
 What should worry us is not the digital divide, but the fundamental divide between a rapidly growing technological capability and a ________growth in eliminating human_________.
(a) diligent, forbearance
(b) zealous, offering
(c) snaillike, deprivation
(d) enthusiastic, endowment
(e) irritation, predicating
Answer Option :3
Solution »
snaillike, deprivation
snaillike – slow,
deprivation – needs
In this sentence, rapidly growing technological capability is being compared to and contrasted with a _______ growth. Clearly, the word here should be of opposite meaning to that of ‘rapid’. The only option available is ‘snail like’ which means ‘slow’.
 If Uber and Ola are charging their customers _________sums, the only longterm solution for the Delhi government is to provide its________ with cheaper and better public transport.
(a) moral, foreigner
(b) principled, immigrant
(c) scrupulous, eminent
(d) ethical, community
(e) unscrupulous , residents
Answer Option :5
Solution »
If the Delhi Govt is to provide cheaper and better public transport, then Uber and Ola must be charging large sums of money unethically. The only word nearest to this meaning is ‘unscrupulous’ in option (e).
Word meaning:
Unscrupulous having or showing no moral principles; not honest or fair.
 Prisoners in Punjab have easy access to mobile phones, drugs and social media which are used to extort and threaten victims and conduct business as usual from the secure ________of jails.
(a) comatose
(b) particular
(c) breathless
(d) confines
(e) windless
Answer Option :4
The word that comes to mind is ‘area’ of jails or ‘compound’ of jails. The closest option available is the word ‘confines’ in option (d).
 Published in FILL IN THE BALNKS
PHRASES AND IDIOMS QUIZ 001
Some phrases/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of phrases/idiom. If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) ‘None of these’ will be the answer.
 Herculean task
(a) very easy
(b) very difficult
(c) not willing to do
(d) need to be done
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 In a lurch
(a) to leave a friend in difficulty
(b) to enjoy a party
(c) to have a fun time
(d) to show kindness
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
 In a red
(a) to be very angry
(b) to be in profit
(c) to be in a loss
(d) just a reference to colour
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 Ins and Outs
(a) in dumps
(b) to bribe
(c) to frown
(d) secrets
(e) None of these
Answer Option :4
 Jaundiced eye
(a) In trouble
(b) Prejudice
(c) Weakness
(d) Having doubt
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 Knit the brow
(a) To frown
(b) To take revenge
(c) to act bravely
(d) To be ready
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
 Kick one’s heels
(a) to be quick
(b) to never stop
(c) to dance
(d) to waste time in waiting
(e) None of these
Answer Option :4
 Lost in the clouds
(a) To enjoy
(b) Confused
(c) To wait
(d) Very much sure
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 Long and short
(a) In a length
(b) In brief
(c) Gift
(d) Soft spoken
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 To end in smoke
(a) To make completely understand
(b) To ruin oneself
(c) To excite great applause
(d) To overcome someone
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 To be above board
(a) To have a good height
(b) To be honest in any business deal
(c) They have no debts
(d) To try to be beautiful
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 To pick holes
(a) To find some reason to quarrel
(b) To destroy something
(c) To criticise someone
(d) To cut some part of an item
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 To put one’s hand to plough
(a) To take up agricultural farming
(b) To take a difficult task
(c) To get entangled into unnecessary things
(d) Take interest in technical work
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 At one’s wit’s end
(a) Perplexed
(b) Clear Up
(c) Explain
(d) Enlighten
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
 At one’s fingertips
(a) To take revenge
(b) Matter of shame
(c) Complete knowledge
(d) Getting ready to leave
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 Published in PHRASES AND IDIOMS
PARA JUMBLE QUIZ 001
Directions (Q. 15): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
 Is the international scholarly pecking order about to be over turned?
 They have been unsurpassed since World War II in the sheer volume and excellence of the scholarship and innovation that they generate.
 They are building new universities, improving existing ones, competing hard for the best students, and recruiting UStrained PhDs to return home to work in university and industry labs.
 For decades, research universities in the United States have been universally acknowledged as the world’s leaders in science and engineering.
 But there are growing signs that the rest of the world is gaining ground fast.
 Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
 Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
 Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
Solutions
 (c); Sol.
 (b); The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DBECA
 (d); The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DBECA
 (a); The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DBECA
 (b); The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DBECA
Explanation:
The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DBECA
D is the introductory sentence it introduces the topic in general.
B follows D, because ‘they’ in B refers to the ‘research universities in the United States’ in D.
E contains a contrasting word ‘but, which indicates a change of idea. After talking about universities in US, they are now talking about the rest of the world.
The ‘they’ in C refers to the rest of the world.
Given the facts, the paragraph ends with a question whether the world is changing and the US research universities are losing ground as the best ones.
Directions (Q. 610): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
 Who will be here with us when the Police (contingents) move out?
 We will go back to the same ways and if we speak out our lives will be in danger.
 What has happened has happened.
 In 2006, when the crime occurred a Khairlanji resident told us: Our lives are here–land, cattle, families.
 No one.
 That is the way it is for us.
 Which of the following sentences will come FIRST after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
(e) E
 Which of the following sentences will come SECOND after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which of the following sentences will come THIRD after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) C
(e) D
 Which of the following sentences will come FIFTH after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which of the following sentences will come LAST after rearrangement ?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) D
(e) B
01. d
02. a
03. c
04. C
05. B
Explanation:
The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DAEBCF
D introduces the topic.
A is the question and E is its answer. Therefore, A is followed by E.
B is a continuation of the idea in E that there will be no one to protect them later.
C followed by F reflect their take on the matter and how they feel about it.
Directions (Q. 1115): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
 After examining him, the doctor smiled at him mischievously and took out a syringe.
 Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor.
 That day, Mintu wanted to take a day off from school
 Immediately, Mintu jumped up from his bed and swore the he was fine
 Therefore; he pretended to be sick and remained in bed.
 Which sentence should come THIRD in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which sentence should come LAST in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which sentence should come FOURTH in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which sentence should come SECOND in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
 Which sentence should come FIRST in the paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Sequence: CEBAD
Explanation:
The correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be CEBAD
Sentence C introduces the story.
The supporting word ‘therefore’ in E indicates the continuation of the idea in C.
Sentence B continues with the idea of sickness.
A follows B, because in A the doctor is called and in B the doctor does something.
D shows the effect of the doctor’s action on Mintu and thus concludes the story.
 Published in PARA JUMBLE
READING COMPREHENSION QUIZ 001
Directions (15): Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
In yet another remarkable achievement, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s Juno spacecraft has successfully entered the orbit around Jupiter without being knocked down by the planet’s intense magnetic field and radiation. That the spacecraft, which had travelled 2.8 billion km since its launch on August 5, 2011, passed through a spot that was originally planned for, when it came closest to the planet, provides a measure of the level of success of the mission. Juno, with a diameter of 11.5 ft, is not the first spacecraft to enter into orbit around Jupiter. But unlike its predecessor, the Galileo spacecraft that explored the planet between 1995 and 2003, Juno will study Jupiter much more thoroughly given the array of nine scientific instruments that it carries on board. The most important difference between the two missions is Juno’s ability to see below the dense cloud cover of Jupiter; only a probe of Galileo entered the planet’s atmosphere. Getting as close as 5,000 km from the cloud tops and being able to see through the clouds will make it possible for Juno’s camera, Junocam, to take closeup photos of the poles and other points of interest. The main objectives of the mission are to understand the origin and evolution of Jupiter, to find out if the planet, like Earth, has a solid rocky core, to uncover the source of its intense magnetic field, to measure water and ammonia in deep atmosphere, and to observe the auroras.
Though the nine instruments will be turned on by the end of the week, the first full set of observations will not take place before the end of August when the spacecraft comes close to Jupiter on its first orbit; science experiments will begin in full earnest in midOctober when it gets into a 14day orbit. Juno will orbit the planet from poletopole, minimizing the amount of radiation exposure, but the orbit will ultimately shift due to Jupiter’s intense gravitational field, making the spacecraft pass through more intense regions of radiation. Though shielded by a titanium vault, the radiation from Jupiter will slowly but surely compromise the instruments by the time it finishes its mission in February 2018. But before this happens, scientists expect to collect enough information to further our understanding of how the giant planet was formed some 4.5 billion years ago, and of the origins of the solar system. The amount of water it contains and the nature of its core will provide clues about where the planet formed early in the system’s life span. After orbiting the planet 37 times and returning invaluable scientific information, Juno will incinerate in Jupiter’s atmosphere in early 2018 as the Galileo spacecraft did.
 According to the passage, “What is the main purpose of sending JUNO spacecraft to Jupiter ?
(a) To find conditions like earth.
(b) to gather information which Galileo couldn’t able to get
(c) to get information about Jupiter for research
(d) to get information for space
(e) None of the above
 What could be the suitable ‘title’ of the above passage?
(a) Mission “Another Earth”
(b) Discovery with Juno
(c) Success in Space
(d) Five years Ago
(e) None of these
 Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE according to the given passage?
That the spacecraft, which had travelled 2.8 billion km since its launch on August 5, 2011, passed through a spot that was originally planned for, when it came closest to the planet, provides a measure of the level of success of the mission.Though the nine instruments will be turned on by the end of the week, the first full set of observations will take place before the end of August when the spacecraft comes close to Jupiter on its first orbit.But before this happens, scientists expect to collect enough information to further our understanding of how the giant planet was formed some 4.5 billion years ago, and of the origins of the solar system.
(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (2)
(c) Only (1) and (3)
(d) Only (3)
(d) None of the above
 What is the main difference between Galileo spacecraft and Juno spacecraft?
(a) Juno is more advanced than Galileo
(b) Juno have nine extra scientific instruments then Galileo
(c) Juno have the ability to see below the dense cloud cover of Jupiter but Galileo didn’t
(d) Juno is a spacecraft but Galileo is a satellite
(e) None of these
 Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to ‘EARNEST’ as used in the passage.
(a) ardent
(b) fervid
(c) insincere
(d) donnish
(e) None of these
1.(a) Paragraph 1, ‘The main objectives of the mission are to understand the origin and evolution of Jupiter, to find out if the planet, like Earth, has a solid rocky core, to uncover the source of its intense magnetic field’.
2. (b) The passage talks about Juno, its objectives, its work plan, etc.
3. (b) Paragraph 2,” Though the nine instruments will not be turned on by the end of the week, the first full set of observations will take place before the end of August when the spacecraft comes close to Jupiter on its first orbit”.
4. (c) Paragraph 1,” The most important difference between the two missions is Juno’s ability to see below the dense cloud cover of Jupiter; only a probe of Galileo entered the planet’s atmosphere”
5. (c) Earnestsincere and intense conviction, insincere not expressing genuine feeling, fake
Directions (615): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help out locate them while answering some of the questions.
When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let’s try a contrarian’s forecast instead.
Let’s start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5–1.8 per cent being forecast currently. Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as post earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012. The ‘hardlanding’ scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 percent that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8 – 8.5 per cent in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion had dwindled over the last few monthsperipheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new government in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform. Even with some of these positive factors in place we have to accept the fact the global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market central banks to reverse its stance and alter its reserve ratio. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to 7 per cent for March 2012. That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing faceoff between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market. As inflation fears abate and emerging market’s central banks being to cut rates, two things could happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor’s comfort levels with their markets will increase.
Which of the emerging markets will outperform who will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers.
Let’s now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a shortrun cyclical dip with a permanent derating of its longterm structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7 10 per cent depending on policy action. Ten per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 percent potential? In judging this, let’s again be careful. Let’s not go by the laundry list of reforms that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights for institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs through these reformsthey will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags. Reforms or not.
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise sustainable longterm growth rate. These have to come in area like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and regulation that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.
 Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
(a) China’s economic growth is likely to decline below 8 per cent in the year 2012.
(b) The European economy is not doing very well.
(c) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms.
(d) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession.
(e) All are true.
 Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012?
(A) Prices of oil will not increase
(B) Credit availability would be lesser
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser
(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (C)
(e) All (A), (B), and (C)
 Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy?
(a) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011.
(b) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 per cent.
(c) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities by consumers is lesser than that in the year 2011.
(d) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do better than what has been forecast
(e) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.
 According to the author, which of the following would characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012?
(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead.
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.
(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A) and (B) and (C)
 Why does the author NOT recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FIIs?
(a) These will bring about only minor growth.
(b) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country, whereas will benefit the Falls significantly.
(c) The previous such recommendations had backfired.
(d) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country’s economic downfall.
(e) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in India.
 According to the author, which of the following reforms is/are needed to ensure long term growth in India?
(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A),(B) and (C)
Directions (1213): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
 Abate
(a) Rise
(b) Gear
(c) Hurl
(d) Lessen
(e) Retreat
 Draw
(a) Entice
(b) Push
(c) Decoy
(d) Extract
(e) Persuade
Directions (1415): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in passage.
 Myriad
(a) Mucho
(b) Difficult
(c) Few
(d) Effortless
(e) Countless
 Tepid
(a) Moderate
(b) High
(c) Enthusiastic
(d) Irregular
(e) Little
6. (a); Refer to the last line of second paragraph, “Growth might decelerate……………..in 2012”. Hence statement (a) is not true in the context of the passage.
7. (c); Refer to the fourth sentence of third paragraph, “Softer growth …………. March 2012.” Hence only options B and C are true in the context of the passage.
8. (d); Refer to fourth sentence of second paragraph. “U.S. might post………….. forecast currently.” Hence sentence (d) is true.
9. (a); Refer to the first few lines of second last paragraph, “In an environment ………… remains depressed.” Hence only option B is true in the context of the passage.
10. (a); Refer to the seventh sentence of second last paragraph, “Let’s not go………… only at the margin.” Hence sentence (a) is true.
11. (e); Refer to the first few lines of last paragraph. “The reforms that we need …………… such a nightmare” Hence all sentences are true.
12. (d); Abate means to reduce or to remove. Hence ‘lessen’ is the word most similar in meaning to it.
13. (d); Draw means extract (an object) from a container or receptacle. Hence ‘draw’ and ‘extract’ are similar in meanings. Decoy and Entice mean to lure.
14. (c); Myriad means extremely great in number. Hence ‘myriad’ and ‘few’ are opposite in meanings.
15. (c); Tepid means lukewarm, dull. Hence ‘enthusiastic’ is the word most nearly opposite in meaning to it.
 Published in READING COMPREHENSION
SENTENCE CORRECTION QUIZ 001
Directions Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No Error’, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
 She was wearing a wig that was far more attractive than the other women who had their natural hair.
(a) She was wearing a wig that was
(b) far more attractive
(c) thanthe other women who had
(d) their natural hair.
(e) No error
Answer Option :3
Explanation:
far more attractive than that of the other women…….It is the Error of the Comparative. A wig cannot be compared with other women. A wig can be compared with the wig/ wigs of other women.
 Each of the speakers whom I invited to participate in the debate has indicated their unwillingness because of the short notice.
(a) Each of the speakers whom I invited
(b) to participate in the debate has
(c) indicated their unwillingness
(d) because of the short notice.
(e) No error
Answer Option :3
Explanation:
’Indicated their unwillingness’ in the sentence should be replaced by ’indicated his or her unwillingness’.
It is a PronounAntecedent Error. The Antecedent of the Pronoun ‘their’ is ‘Each’, which is a Singular Pronoun. If the Antecedent is singular, then the Pronoun must also be singular (and viceversa).
 The creature on Mars, if any, are bound to be very different from us not only in shape but also in size because of different gravitational conditions.
(a) The creature on Mars, if any,
(b) are bound to be very different from us
(c) not only in shape but also in size
(d) because of different gravitational conditions.
(e) No error
Answer Option :1
Explanation:
’The creature on Mars, if any,’ in the sentence should be replaced by ’the creatures on mars, if any’.
It is an Error of Subject Verb Agreement. The plural of ’creatures is used to agree with the verb ’are’ and to correspond with ’if any’. A verb must agree with its subject in number and person. The plural ’parts’ fits in with the verb ’were’.
 The emphasis on food sold by branded restaurants, mainly local franchises of western food brands, again defies legitimate explanation.
(a) The emphasis on food sold by branded
(b) restaurants, mainly local franchises
(c) of western food brands
(d) again defies legitimate explanation.
(e) No error
Answer Option :5
Explanation:
No Error.
 To understand why, one needs to look on international arbitrations and World Trade Organisation (WTO) cases involving tobacco control laws.
(a) To understand why, one needs to look on
(b) international arbitrations and
(c) World Trade Organisation (WTO) cases
(d) involving tobacco control laws.
(e) No error
Answer Option :1
Explanation:
(a) Explanation:”look into” in place of “look on”. ‘Look into’ is the correct Phrasal Verb. It means to search or find.
 Three Indians, two women and one man were among the shortlisted 100 applicants whom were chosen for oneway trip to Mars under one mission.
(a) Three Indians, two women and one man
(b) were among the shortlisted 100
(c) applicants whom were chosen for
(d) oneway trip to mars under one mission.
(e) No error
Answer Option :3
Explanation:
Replace ‘whom’ with ‘who’. This is the Error of the Pronoun Case. Here, even though ‘who’ is used in the middle of a sentence, it is the Subject of the Verb ‘were’. Therefore, it will be in the Subjective Case.
 The cover story in Organiser, “Teach True History of Bharat”, notes “the excavation of late 20th and 21st century revealed the existence of a Bharatiyacivilisation in unbroken continuity since 8000 BC”.
(a) The cover story in Organiser,
(b) “Teach True History of Bharat”, notes “the excavation of late 20th and 21st century
(c) revealed the existence of a Bharatiya
(d) civilisation in unbroken continuity since 8000 BC”.
(e) No error
Answer Option :2
Explanation:
It should be the ‘excavations’ instead of the ‘excavation’.It is the Error of Noun NumberSingular/ Plural. The word ‘and’ indicates plural number.
 He has not been attending English classes since one month.
(a) He has not
(b) been attending
(c) English classes
(d) since one month
(e) No error
Answer Option 😀
Explanation:
It should be ‘for one month’ instead of ‘since one month’. It is the Error of the Preposition. ‘Since’ is used when the beginning of the time period is mentioned. For example I started working with him since January, 2015. ‘For’ is used when the duration of the time period is given. For example I worked with him for 4 months.
 Regretfully, profits earned by your company fell by 20 per cent last year despite higher sales.
(a) Regretfully, profits earned
(b) by your company
(c) fell by 20 per cent last year
(d) despite higher sales.
(e) No error
Answer Option :1
Explanation:
It should be ‘Regrettably, profits earned by your company…’. It is the Error of the Word.
 Dismantling the camp will remove this magnet for refugees and migrants, conned into heading for Calais by traffickers. These ruthless gangs steal the lifesavings forvulnerable people and dump them in the squalor of the camp.
(a) Dismantling the camp will remove this magnet for refugees and migrants,
(b) conned into heading for Calais by traffickers.
(c) These ruthless gangs steal the lifesavings for
(d) vulnerable people and dump them in the squalor of the camp.
(e) No error
Answer Option :3
Explanation:
‘For’ will be replaced with ‘of’.It is the Error of the preposition.
‘For’ indicates purpose. ‘Of’means belongs to.
 She won her maiden grand Prix gold at the Malaysian Open, went on to win the first of her hattrick of titles at the Macau Open. The bigger reward in the form of Arjuna award was the icing the cake.
(a) She won her maiden grand Prix gold at the Malaysian Open,
(b) went on to win the first of her hattrick
(c) of titles at the Macau Open.
(d) The bigger reward in the form of Arjuna award was the icing the cake.
(e) No error
Answer Option :4
Explanation:
The correct idiom is “icing on the cake”. It means an additional benefit to something already good. For example All these letters of congratulation are icing on the cake. It is an Error of the Idiom.
 It also failed to end the session on anote of federal cooperation to seton the shift to Budget dayto February 1 from next year.
(a) It also failed to end the session on a
(b) note of federal cooperation to set
(c) on the shift to Budget day
(d) to February 1 from next year.
(e) No error
Answer Option :3
Explanation:
Replace “on” with “up”. It is the Error of the Preposition.
 With the Opposition parties mustering all its disruptive tactics to stallthe functioning of both Houses, insisting on maximalistdemands on just how the debate on demonetisation should be structured, hopes for any substantive work had diminished.
(a) With the Opposition parties mustering all its disruptive tactics to stall
(b) the functioning of both Houses, insisting on maximalist
(c) demands on just how the debate on demonetization should be structured,
(d) hopes for any substantive work had diminished.
(e) No error
Answer Option :1
Explanation:
It should be ‘their’ instead if ‘its’. It is a Pronoun Antecedent Error.
 The problem of poor learning outcomes is forparticular concern, for it is a structuralissue pertaining to the design of curriculaand ingrained rote learning methods.
(a) The problem of poor learning outcomes is for
(b) particular concern, for it is a structural
(c) issue pertaining to the design of curricula
(d) and ingrained rote learning methods.
(e) No error
Answer Option :1
Explanation:
Replace “for” with “of”
Of – Used for belonging to, relating to, or connected with. ‘Of’ is used to indicate reference and to indicate an amount or number.
For – Used to indicate the use or purpose of something, Used to mean because of and Used to indicate time or duration.
 By forcing adjournments while in opposition, it was successful in reinforcingthe impression of apolicy paralysis in the second UPA government.
(a) By forcing adjournments while in opposition,
(b) it was successful in reinforcing
(c) the impression of a
(d) policy paralysis in the second UPA government.
(e) No error
Answer Option :5
Explanation:
No Error.
 Published in SENTENCE CORRECTION
SENTENCE CORRECTION QUIZ 002
Directions (110) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
 There is a growing buzz that Krishnan is seeking a suitable diplomatic assignment in abroad or a berth in the Rajya Sabha in good time.
(a) There is a growing buzz that Mr. Krishnan is
(b) seeking a suitable diplomatic assignment in abroad
(c) or a berth in
(d) the Rajya Sabha in good time.
(e) No error
 The Indian Space Research Organisation mission to the mysterious red planet is an ambitious attempt to demonstrate its technological capability to conduct a deep space mission.
(a) The Indian Space Research Organisation mission to
(b) the mysterious red planet is an ambitious attempt
(c) to demonstrate its technological capability
(d) to conduct a deep space mission.
(e) No error
 The most remarkable thing about the recent cyclone, Phailin, which striked Gopalpur in Odisha on October 12 and caused widespread destruction in the coastal areas, was the minimal loss of human lives.
(a) The most remarkable thing about the recent cyclone, Phailin,
(b) which striked Gopalpur in Odisha on October 12
(c) and caused widespread destruction in the coastal areas,
(d) was the minimal loss of human lives.
(e) No error
 The growing number of clashes between officers and Jawans indicates a serious crisis in the Indian Army which has resulted from the prolong apathy of the military and political leadership.
(a) The growing number of clashes between officers and Jawans indicates
(b) a serious crisis in the Indian Army
(c) which has resulted from the prolong apathy
(d) of the military and political leadership.
(e) No error
 China and Japan are locked in an acrimonious dispute over a group of small islands in East China Sea known as Senkaku in Japan and Diaoyu in China.
(a) China and Japan are locked in
(b) an acrimonious dispute over a group of small islands
(c) in East China Sea known as
(d) Senkaku in Japan and Diaoyu in China.
(e) No error
 Even today there are several million people who do not have access of banking services.
(a) Even today there are
(b) several million people
(c) who do not have
(d) access of banking services
(e) No error
 In financial matters it is important to get disinterested advice or no advice
(a) In financial matters
(b) it is important to
(c) get disinterested advice
(d) or no advice
(e) No error
 Ramesh doubts when he will be ready for the presentation in time.
(a) Ramesh doubts when
(b) he will be ready
(c) for the presentation
(d) in time
(e) No error
 Sugarsweetened drinks does not pose any particular health risk, and are not a unique risk factor for obesity or heart disease.
(a) Sugarsweetened drinks does not
(b) pose any particular health risk, and
(c) are not a unique risk factor
(d) for obesity or heart disease.
(e) No error
 Many believe that nothing could have avoided the war between America and Iraq.
(a) Many believe that
(b) nothing could have
(c) avoided the war
(d) between America and Iraq.
(e) No error
Directions (1115): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.
 Take into account the suggestions of the panel, a revised draft report is being placed in the public domain.
(a) Taken into account
(b) Taking an account
(c) Taking into account
(d) Accounting for
(e) No correction required
 They claim that their employees are highly committing and disciplined.
(a) Have been highly committing
(b) Are highly committed
(c) Have high commitments
(d) Have been high committed
(e) No correction required
 Before accepting a new assignment, ensured that you complete all your earlier assignments.
(a) Ensure that you complete
(b) Ensure that you completed
(c) Surely you can complete
(d) Ensure that you are completing
(e) No correction required
 I am fully convinced of the integrity of my colleagues.
(a) Full convincing of
(b) Fully convincing about
(c) Fully convincing of
(d) Full in convincing of
(e) No correction required
 The spectators were spellbound at the thrilling sight and at the end, they could not held their applause in appreciation.
(a) Withheld their applause
(b) Withhold their applause
(c) Held their applauding
(d) Hold their applaud
(e) No correction required
 (2); Delete ‘in’
 (1); The word ‘organisation’ will be in possessive case. Replace ‘organisation’ with ‘organisation’s.
 (2); Incorrect Past Tense of the Verb. Replace ‘striked’ with ‘struck’
 (3); Replace ‘prolong’ with ‘prolonged’
 (3); Place ‘the’ before ‘East’
 (4); Incorrect Phrasal Verb. Use ‘to’ in place of ‘of’, after the verb access.
 (5); No error
 (1); Use ‘if’ in place of ‘when’.
 (1); This sentence has a Subject Verb Agreement error. ‘Sugarsweetened drinks do not’ is correct use as plural subject is followed by plural verb.
 (3); Incorrect use of word. Substitute ‘averted’ for ‘avoided’. ‘Avoid’ means ‘refrain from doing something’ and ‘avert’ means ‘to prevent something unpleasant’
 (c); Replace ‘Take into account’ with ‘Taking into account’
 (b); Replace ‘highly committing’ with ‘highly committed’
 (a); Replace ‘ensured that you complete’ with ‘ensure that you complete’
 (e); No correction required.
 (b); Replace ‘held their applause’ with ‘withhold their applause’
 Published in SENTENCE CORRECTION
ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION QUIZ 001
Out of the given options, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
 Animals who live in herds
(a) Sociable
(b) Carnivorous
(c) Social
(d) Gregarious
(e) None of these
Answer Option :4
 One who sacrifices his life for a cause
(a) Soldier
(b) Revolutionary
(c) Martyr
(d) Patriot
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 A study of sounds is known as
(a) Phonetics
(b) Semantics
(c) Stylistics
(d) Linguistics
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
 Affecting or relating to cows
(a) Feline
(b) Bovine
(c) Ovine
(d) Vulpine
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 A man who knows a lot about things like food, music and art
(a) Priest
(b) Optimist
(c) Hostage
(d) Connoisseur
(e) None of these
Answer Option :4
 All the arts, beliefs and social institutions etc. characteristic of a race
(a) Culture
(b) Civilization
(c) Infrastructure
(d) Ritual
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 One who can use either of his hands with ease
(a) Amateur
(b) Expert
(c) Ambidextrous
(d) Gluttonous
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 One who studies the pattern of voting in election
(a) Anthropologist
(b) Cartographer
(c) Laxicographer
(d) Psephologist
(e) None of these
Answer Option :4
 Absence of the government
(a) Anarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Autocracy
(d) Autonomy
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
 Government run by officials is called
(a) Democracy
(b) ureaucracy
(c) Gerontocracy
(d) Kekistocracy
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 Government by inexperienced persons is called
(a) Panarchy
(b) Oligarchy
(c) Neocracy
(d) Ochlocracy
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 Government by the rich is called
(a) Theocracy
(b) Thearchy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Plutocracy
(e) None of these
Answer Option :4
 State in which the few govern the many
(a) Monarchy
(b) Oligarchy
(c) Plutocracy
(d) Autocracy
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
 A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge
(a) Pedantic
(b) Verbose
(c) Pompous
(d) Ornate
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
 List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting
(a) Schedule
(b) Timetable
(c) Agenda
(d) Plan
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
 Published in ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION
CLOZE TEST QUIZ 001
Directions (1 10): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and bold. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
What Indian politicians and bureaucrats share with their scientist, engineer and carpenter counterparts is their acceptance of mediocrity and lack of skill. The greatest moral failure of Indian institutions is the tolerance of incompetence ……. (1)……. criminality or corruption. The tolerance of incompetence in …….. (2)…….. is a result of a low cultural value attached to the creation and …….. (3)……. of institutions. Institution building is hard work; it requires a combination of vision, commitment and performance. Any institution involves a contract between those who …….. (4)……. to the institution and those who support it. The support can take the form of money or votes but that support must be ……. (5)…… continuously. In a properly functioning institutional system, the institutional contract …….. (6)……… the institution members and their supporters take the form you give me support and I will give you results.
Competence is the channel that sustains the flow of trust from supporters to institutions and back. If doctors don’t cure will they not lose our trust? While blaming individual politicians and babus for their corrupt ways, let us also examine the system that accepts mediocrity and even lets it …….. (7)…… .
What we are seeing in India is a case of contract failure. The contractor who bribes an official and then builds a leaky stadium is not just being …….. (8)……. . He is sustaining a collusive system that subverts rules regulating mutual cooperation between government institutions, market players and society as a whole. In the case of endemic contract failure everyone ………(9)……… including the contractor, for once the public loses its trust in institutions even businessmen will ………(10)……… out on opportunities to make money. The moral status of institutions is central to continued development and prosperity.
(a) as
(b) to
(c) never
(d) not
(e) for
(a) turn
(b) individual
(c) world
(d) partly
(e) importance
(a) destruction
(b) justification
(c) sustenance
(d) excess
(e) marginalization
(a) belong
(b) work
(c) help
(d) employed
(e) trust
(a) returned
(b) earned
(c) needed
(d) discouraged
(e) asked
(a) suggests
(b) akin
(c) twosome
(d) centered
(e) between
(a) question
(b) bolder
(c) thrive
(d) out
(e) kill
(a) variant
(b) trivial
(c) immature
(d) corrupt
(e) generous
(a) Succeeds
(b) suffers
(c) proliferates
(d) responsible
(e) encompasses
(a) storm
(b) venture
(c) lose
(d) get
(e) walk
 (d);
 (a)
 (c)
 (a); If ‘work’ were to be used; it would go with preposition ‘for’. ‘help’ will not come as ‘support’ is there. Also, it doesn’t take any preposition.
 (b)
 (e)
 (c); ‘thrive’ means ‘flourish’ or ‘continue to grow’
 (d)
 (b)
10.(c)
Directions (1115): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
Antislavery advocate Harriet Tubman will become the first African American on the face of U.S. paper currency, and the first woman in more than a century, when she replaces former President Andrew Jackson on the $20 bill. The U.S. Treasury Department said on Wednesday that Tubman, __(11)__was born into slavery in the early 1820s and went on to help hundreds of slaves escape, would take the centre spot on the bill, while Jackson, a slave owner, would move to the back. Introduced alongside a __(12)__of changes to the $5 and $10 notes as well, the redesign gives the Treasury “a chance to open the aperture to reflect more of America’s history”, Treasury Secretary Jack Lew said. A new $10 bill will add images of five female leaders of the women’s __(13)__ movement, including Sojourner Truth and Elizabeth Cady Stanton, to the back, while keeping founding father Alexander Hamilton on the front. The reverse of a new $5 note will show former first lady Eleanor Roosevelt and civil rights leader Martin Luther King Jr., officials said. Former President Abraham Lincoln will remain on the front. Mr. Lew said the designs should be unveiled __(14)__2020 and go into circulation “as quickly as possible,” although he declined to say when. He said the $10 bill was scheduled to go out first, citing security needs. The longawaited decision to __(15)__ the seventh president of the United States with Tubman followed months of outreach by the Treasury regarding which woman should be featured on a bill.
(a)which
(b) that
(c)who
(d)what
(e) she
(a) slew
(b) wind
(c) event
(d) time
(e) adaptation
(a) suffering
(b) suffer
(c) suffered
(d) sufferance
(e) suffrage
(a) at
(b) by
(c) in
(d) on
(e) until
(a) put
(b) change
(c) print
(d) replace
(e) honor
 (c)
 (a)
 (e)
 (b)
 (d)
 Published in CLOZE TEST
SIMPLE INTEREST QUIZ 001
 A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 650
(b) Rs. 690
(c) Rs. 698
(d) Rs. 700
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
Solution »
S.I. for 1 year = Rs. (854 – 815) = Rs. 39.
S.I. for 3 years = Rs. (39 x 3) = Rs. 117.
Principal = Rs. (815 – 117) = Rs. 698
 What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by a certain amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9 years?
(a) 3:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 1:3
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
Solution »
Let the principal be P and rate of interest be R%.
Required ratio =
(( P x R x 6 )/100)
= (6PR/9PR) = 6/9= 2 : 3.
 What annual instalment will discharge a debt of Rs. 1,092 due in 3 years at 12% simple interest?
(a) Rs. 325
(b) Rs. 545
(c) Rs. 560
(d) Rs. 540
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
Solution »
Let each instalment be Rs. x.
1st year = [x + (x * 12 * 2)/100]
2nd year = [ x + (x *12 * 1)/100]
3rd year = x
Then, [x + (x * 12 * 2)/100] + [ x + (x *12 * 1)/100] + x =1092
3x + ( 24x/100 ) + ( 12x/100 ) = 1092
336x =109200
x = 325
Each instalment = Rs. 325
 Reena took a loan of Rs. 1,200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
(a) 3.6
(b) 6
(c) 18
(d) cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
Solution »
Let rate = R% and time = R years.
Then, (1200 * R * R)\100 = 432
= R<sup>2</sup> = 36
= R = 6
 Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3,508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
(a) Rs. 6,400
(b) Rs. 6,500
(c) Rs. 7,200
(d) Rs. 7,500
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
Solution »
Let the sum invested in Scheme A be Rs. x and that in Scheme B be Rs. (13,900 – x).
Then,
=> 28x – 22x = 350800 – (13900 x 22)
=> 6x = 45000
=> x = 7500.
So, sum invested in Scheme B = Rs. (13,900 – 7,500) = Rs. 6,400.
 A father left a will of Rs. 35 lakhs between his two daughters aged 8.5 and 16 such that they may get equal amounts when each of them reach the age of 21 years. The original amount of Rs. 35 lakhs has been instructed to be invested at 10% p.a. simple interest. How much did the elder daughter get at the time of the will?
(a) Rs. 17.5 lakhs
(b) Rs. 21 lakhs
(c) Rs. 20 lakhs
(d) Rs. 15 lakhs
(e) Rs. 25 lakhs
Answer Option :2
Solution »
Let Rs. x be the amount that the elder daughter got at the time of the will. Therefore, the younger daughter got (3,500,000 – x).
 How long will it take for a sum of money to grow from Rs. 1,250 to 10, 000, if it is invested at 12.5% p.a. simple interest?
(a) 56
(b) 45
(c) 68
(d) 78
(e) 43
Answer Option :1
Solution »
Simple interest is given by the formula SI = (pnr/100), where p is the principal, n is the number of years for which it is invested, r is the rate of interest per annum
In this case, Rs. 1,250 has become Rs. 10,000.
Therefore, the interest earned = 10,000 – 1,250 = 8,750.
8750 = [(1250*n*12.5)/100]
=> n = 700 / 12.5 = 56 years.
 If the simple interest on a certain sum of money is 4/25 of the sum and the rate per cent equals the number years, then the rate of interest per annum is:
(a) 4%
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
(e) None of these
Answer Option :1
Solution »
Let the principal be Rs x.
Then the SI =4/25x
Rate of interest = Time
r= (100*4/25x)/ x*r
r<sup>2</sup> =400/25
r=20/5=4%
 A financier lend money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is changing an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes?
(a) 10%
(b) 11.5%
(c) 10.25%
(d) 12%
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
Solution »
Let the sum be Rs. 100. Then,
S.I. for first 6 months = (100 * 10 * 1/2)/100] = Rs. 5
Next 6 months 10% of 5 is Rs. 2 is added.
S.I. for last 6 months = Rs. [(102 * 10 *1/2)/100] = Rs. 5.25
So, amount at the end of 1 year = Rs. (100 + 5 + 5.25) = Rs. 110.25
R = (110.25 – 100) = 10.25%
 Ragav purchases a coat for Rs. 2,400 cash or for Rs. 1,000 cash down payments and two monthly instalments of Rs. 800 each. Find the rate of interest.
(a) 80%
(b) 100%
(c) 110%
(d) 120%
(e) None
Answer Option :4
Solution »
Amount as a principal for 2 month = 2400 – 1000 = 1400
At the rate of r% per annum after 2 months,
D 1400 will amount to Rs 1400 + (1400*r*2/100*12)
Total amount for 2 instalments at the end of second month
D 800+(800+(800*r*1/100*12))
Then 1400 + 2800*r/1200=1600 + 800*r/1200
R=120%
 Two persons P and Q borrowed Rs. 40,000/ and Rs. 60,000/ respectively from R at different rates of simple interest. The interest payable by P at the end of the first four years and that payable by Q at the end of the first three years is the same. If the total interest payable by P and Q for one year is Rs. 8,400/, then at what rate did Q borrow the money from R?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 9
(e) None
Answer Option :1
Solution »
40000*4*R<sub>1</sub>/100=60000*3*R<sub>2</sub>/100
R<sub>1</sub>=9/8R<sub>2</sub>
1yr interest
40000*1*r<sub>1</sub>/100+60000*1*R<sub>2</sub>/100=8400
4R<sub>2</sub>+6R<sub>2</sub>=84
Then, substitute 4(9/8R<sub>2</sub>)+6R<sub>2</sub>=84==>
R<sub>2</sub>=8
 The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first 2 years, 6% per annum for the period next 4 years, 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. 1680, what is the sum?
(a) Rs. 3,000
(b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 4,700
(d) Rs. 5,500
(e) Rs. 7,580
Answer Option :1
Solution »
SI at the rate of 4% for 2 years ,
=( P* 4*2)/100 = 8P/100
SI at the rate of 6% for 4 years ,
(P*6*4)/100 = 24P/100
SI for the next 3 years
SI = (P*8*3)/100 = 24P/100
Total SI = 8P/100 + 24P/100 + 24P/100
=>P = (1680*100 )/56 = 3000
 The rates of simple interest in two banks A and B are in the ratio 5 : 4. A person wants to deposit his total savings in two banks in such a way that he receives equal halfyearly interest from both. He should deposit the savings in banks A and B in the ratio
(a) 2:5
(b) 4 :5
(c) 5:2
(d) 5:4
(e) None of these
Answer Option :2
Solution »
 The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first 2 years, 6% per annum for the next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. 1,120, then the sum is
(a) Rs. 2,400
(b) Rs. 2,200
(c) Rs. 2,000
(d) None of these.
Answer Option :3
Solution »
 A person invested some amount at the rate of 12% simple interest and a certain amount at the rate of 10% simple interest. He received yearly interest of Rs. 130. But if he had interchanged the amounts invested, he would have received Rs. 4 more as interest. How much did he invest at 12% simple interest?
(a) Rs. 700
(b) Rs. 800
(c) Rs. 500
(d) Rs. 400
(e) None of these
Answer Option :3
Solution »
 Published in SIMPLE INTEREST, Uncategorized
TIME AND DISTANCE QUIZ 001
 Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively. If they cross each other in 23 seconds, what is the ratio of their speeds?
(a) Insufficient data
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 3 : 2
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the speed of the trains be x and y respectively
Length of train1 = 27x
Length of train2 = 17y
Relative speed= x+ y
Time taken to cross each other = 23 s
=> (27x + 17 y)/(x + y) = 23
=> (27x + 17 y) = 23(x + y)
=> 4x = 6y
=> x/y = 6/4 = 3/2
 A train starts from Delhi at 6.00 a.m. and reaches Meerut at 10 a.m. The other train starts from Meerut at 8 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 11.30 a.m. If the distance between Delhi and Meerut is 200 km, then at what time did the two trains meet each other?
(a) 8.56 a.m
(b) 8.46 a.m
(c) 7.56 a.m
(d) 8.30 a.m
(e) None of these
Explanation:
The Speed of the train starting from Delhi = 200/4 = 50 km/h
The Speed of train starting from Meerut = 200/3.5 = 400/7 km/h
Suppose the two trains meet x hours after 6.00 am
Then x X 50 + (x – 2) x 400/7 = 200
or, 350x + 400x – 800 = 1400
or, 750x = 2200
or, x = 2200/750 = 2h 56 min
Hence, the required time = 8.56 am
 A train does a journey without stopping in 8 hours. If it had traveled 5 km an hour faster, it would have done the journey in 6 hours 40 min. What is its slower speed?
(a) 35 kmph
(b) 25 kmph
(c) 40kmph
(d) 30 kmph
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let its slower speed = V km per hour
Here distance is same in both the cases
Using the formula = V1 x t1 = V2 x t2
or, V x 8 = (V + 5) x 20/3
or, 24V = (V + 5) x 20
V= 25 km/h
Thus, Slower speed of train is 25 km/h.
 A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first person walks at 4.5 km/hr and the other walks at 5.4 km/hr. The train needs 8.4 and 8.5 seconds respectively to overtake them. What is the speed of the train if both the persons are walking in the same direction as the train?
(a) 81 km/hr
(b) 88 km/hr
(c) 62 km/hr
(d) 46 km/hr
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let x is the length of the train in meter and y is its speed in kmph
x/8.4 = (y – 4.5)(10/36) —(1)
x/8.5 = (y – 5.4)(10/36) —(2)
Dividing 1 by 2
8.5/8.4 = (y – 4.5)/ (y – 5.4)
=> 8.4y – 8.4 × 4.5 = 8.5y – 8.5 × 5.4
0.1y = 8.5 × 5.4 – 8.4 × 4.5
=> .1y = 45.9 – 37.8 = 8.1
=> y = 81 km/hr
 A man covered a certain distance at some speed. If he had moved 3 kmph faster, he would have taken 40 minutes less. If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. What is the the distance in km?
(a) 36
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 42
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the distance be x km, the speed in which he moved = v kmph
Time taken when moving at normal speed – time taken when moving 3 kmph faster = 40 minutes
=> (x/v) – (x/(v+3)) = 40/60
⇒2v(v+3)=9x…………….(Equation1)
Time taken when moving 2 kmph slower – Time taken when moving at normal speed = 40 minutes
=> (x/ (v2)) – (x/v) = 40/60
⇒v(v−2)=3x…………….(Equation2)
Eq 1/ Eq 2 = 2(v+3)/ (v – 2) = 3
⇒2v+6=3v−6⇒v=12
Substituting this value of v in Equation 1⇒2×12×15=9x
Hence distance = 40 km
 The speed of a bus increases by 2 km after every one hour. If the distance travelling in the first one hour was 35 km. what was the total distance travelled in 12 hours?
(a) 422km
(b) 552km
(c) 502km
(d) 492km
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Given that distance travelled in 1st hour = 35 km
and speed of the bus increases by 2 km after every one hour
Hence distance travelled in 2nd hour = 37 km
Hence distance travelled in 3rd hour = 39 km
Total Distance Travelled = [35 + 37 + 39 + … (12 terms)]
This is an Arithmetic Progression(AP) with first term, a=35, number of terms, n = 12 and common difference, d=2.
Hence, [35+37+39+… (12 terms)]=S12=12/2[2×35+(12−1)2]=6[70+22]=6×92=552
Hence the total distance travelled = 552 km
 Two trains A and B, 100 m long are moving on parallel tracks at speeds of 20 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. They are travelling in opposite direction. The driver of train A sees the driver of train B when he is closest to high. He throws a ball at a speed of 2 m/s which hits the tail of train B. What is the distance between the two trains?
(a) 0 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 8 m
(e) 5 m
Explanation:
Since the trains are travelling in opposite direction velocity for the driver of the faster train = 50 m/s
Distance travelled = length of the train = 100 m
Time taken by the ball from one train to the other = 100/50 = 2 seconds
Ball in thrown at 2 m/s, distance between the two trains = 2 × 2 = 4 m.
 Two trains, A and B, start from stations X and Y towards each other, they take 4 hours 48 minutes and 3 hours 20 minutes to reach Y and X respectively after they meet if train A is moving at 45 km/hr., then the speed of the train B is
(a) 60 km/hr
(b) 64.8 km/hr
(c) 54 km/hr
(d) 37.5 km/hr
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 1 (2/3) hours, it most travel at a speed of:
(a) 300 kmph
(b) 360 kmph
(c) 600 kmph
(d) 720 kmph
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Distance = 240 X 5= 1200 km.
 A train is travelling at 48 kmph. It crosses another train having half of its length, travelling in opposite direction at 42 kmph, in 12 seconds. It also passes a railway platform in 45 seconds. What is the length of the platform?
(a) 500 m
(b) 360 m
(c) 480 m
(d) 400 m
(e) 450 m
Directions (11): The ratio of time taken by Hunny and Bunny to swim a certain distance downstream in a river is 3 : 4 respectively. The time taken by Bunny to cover a certain distance upstream is 50% more than the time taken by him to cover the same distance downstream.
 What is the ratio of speed of Hunny to that of Bunny?
(a) 7 : 5
(b) 7 : 9
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 6 : 7
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let, speed of Hunny be ‘a ’
Speed of Bunny be ‘b ’
And speed of stream be ‘r ’,
 Both of them hired a boat that runs with a speed equal to the sum of their individual speeds. If Hunny can cover a straight path of length 14 km in 60 minutes, then find the time taken by both of them to travel a distance of 48 km to and fro by the hired boat?
(a) 5 (4/143) hr.
(b) 2 (4/143) hr.
(c) 3 (4/143) hr.
(d) 4 (4/143) hr.
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 Two ship travelling at 30 km/hr and 90 km/hr head directly towards each other, they are 120 km apart at the starting time. How far apart are they (in Km.) at one minute before they collide.
(a) 1 km
(b) 2 km
(c) 3 km
(d) 4 km
(e) None of the above
Explanation:
If the final one minute before collision, the two ship
 A, B and C start from the same place and travels in same direction at speeds of 20, 30 and 40 km/hr respectively. B starts 3hour after A. If B and C overtake A at the same instant. How many hours after A did C start.
(b) 3.25
(c) 4.5
(d) 5.5
(e) None of the above
Explanation:
Speed of A, B and C are 30 km/hr, 40 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively.
B Start when A already travelled for 3 h and covered
= 3 × 20 = 60 km
It means when B overtake A, A has travelled for 9 hr and B for 6 hr.
It is given that B and C overtake A at a same instance, It means when C overtakes A, both of them will have covered the same distance.
Let C takes hours to cover the same as covered by A in 9 hr.
9*20= t*40
t= 4.5
C started after (9 – 4.5 = 4.5), when A started.
 There is from point A and finish at the same point after touching points B, C and D. You, then drive 20 km interior towards the tree from point A and from there, reach somewhere in between B and C on
the ring road. How much distance do you have to travel from the tree to reach the point between B and C on the ring road?
(a) 80 km
(b) 15 m
(c) 20 km
(d) 40 m
Explanation:
 Published in TIME AND DISTANCE
TIME AND WORK QUIZ 001
 A is thrice as good as workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together, they can do it in:
(a) 20 days
(b) 22 1/2 days
(c) 25 days
(d) 30 days
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 1 : 3.
The time difference is (3 – 1) 2 days while B take 3 days and A takes 1 day.
If difference of time is 2 days, B takes 3 days.
If difference of time is 60 days, B takes = 3/2 x 60 = 90 days.
So, A takes 30 days to do the work.
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/30
B’s 1 day’s work = 1/90
A’s and B’s one day work = 1/30 + 1/90 = 2/45.
Therefore, A and B together can do the work in = 45/2 = 22(1/2) days.
 A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They began to do the work together but A leaves after some days and then B completed the remaining work in 23 days. The number of days after which A left the work was?
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 9
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the total units of work to be done be 360.
The units of work done by A in a single day = 8
Similarly, the units of work done by B in a single day = 9.
A and B’s one day work = 17 units
A and B worked together for some days = 17X ( Assume)
B’s work alone for 23 days = 23 x 9 = 207
So, the work done by A and B together = (360 – 207) = 153 units
Therefore, 17X = 153
=> 9 units
Therefore, the number of days after which A left the work was 9 days.
 A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days. They work for 5 days. The rest of work finished by C in 2 days. If they get Rs 1500 for the whole work, the daily wages of B and C are?
(a) 275
(b) 250
(c) 225
(d) 300
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Part of work done by A = 5/10 = 1/2
Part of work done by B = 1/3
Part of work done by C = (1 (1/2 + 1/3)) = 1/6
A’s share : B’s share : C’s share = 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/6 = 3 : 2 : 1.
A’s share = (3/6) x 1500 = 750
B’s share = (2/6) x 1500 = 500
C’s share = (1/6) x 1500 = 250
A’s daily wages = 750/5 = 150/
B’s daily wages = 500/5 = 100/
C’s daily wages = 250/2 = 125/
Daily wages of B & C = 100 + 125 = 225/
 A is twice as good a workman as B and is therefore able to finish a piece of work in 30 days less than B. In how many days they can complete the whole work; working together?
(a) 20 days
(b) 22.5 days
(c) 25 days
(d) 35 days
(e) 40 days
Explanation:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 1 : 2.
The time difference is (2 – 1) 1 day while B take 2 days and A takes 1 day.
If difference of time is 1 day, B takes 2 days.
If difference of time is 30 days, B takes 2 x 30 = 60 days.
So, A takes 30 days to do the work.
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/30
B’s 1 day’s work = 1/60
(A + B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/30 + 1/60 = 1/20
A and B together can do the work in 20 days.
 Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman?
(a) 4:3
(b) 5:6
(c) 7:9
(d) 8:9
(e) 2:3
Explanation:
(20 x 16) women can complete the work in 1 day.
1 woman’s 1 day’s work = 1/320 .
(16 x 15) men can complete the work in 1 day.
1 man’s 1 day’s work = 1/240
So, required ratio
= 1/240 : 1/320
= 240 : 320
= 1/3 : 1/4
= 4 : 3 (cross multiplied)
 A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 13/4 times as efficient as B. The same job can be done by A alone in:
(a) 9 (1/3)
(b) 2 (5/6)
(c) 11
(d) 5 (2/8)
(e) 4 (6/8)
Explanation:
(A’s 1 day’s work) : (B’s 1 day’s work) = 7 /4: 1 = 7 : 4.
Let A’s and B’s 1 day’s work be 7x and 4x respectively.
Then, 7x + 4x = 1 => 11x = 1/7 => x =1/77
Therefore A’s 1 day’s work = ( 1/77 x 7 ) = 1/11 .
 A can do a piece of work in 8 days which B can destroy in 3 days. A has worked for 6 days, during the last 2 days of which B has been destroying. How many days must A now work alone to complete the work?
(a) 7 days
(b) 7(1/3) days
(c) 7(2/3) days
(d) 8 days
(e) None of these
Explanation:
In 6 days part of the work done by
A = 6/8 = ¾ during 2 days, part of the work destroyed by B = 2/3
 A can complete a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days and C in 20 days. A and C worked together for two days and then A was replaced by B. In how many days, altogether, was the work completed?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 8
Explanation:
 A can do a piece of work in 20 days. He works at it for 5 days and then B finishes it in 10 more days. In how many days will A and B together finish the work?
(a) 8 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 6 days
(e) 16 days
Explanation:
 A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days while B and C do the same work in 24 days and C and A in 20 days. They work for 10 days after that B and C left. How many days more A takes to finish the work?
(a) 15 days
(b) 18 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 12 days
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 A group of 30 men, working 4 hours a day can do a piece of work in 10 days. Find the number of days in which another group of 45 men working 8 hrs a day can do twice the work. Assume that 2 men of the first group do as much work in 2 hours as 4 men of the second group do in 1 hr.
(a) 6(1/3) days
(b) 6(2/3) days
(c) 5(5/6) days
(d) 3(1/6) days
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the first group is man can do x unit in one hour and second group’s man can do y unit in one hour
2 × x × 2 = 4 × y × 1
x = y
2 × 30 × 4 × 10 = 45 × 8 × t
t = 6 (2/3) days
 P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8 days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together. working 8 hours a day. in how many days can they complete the work?
(a) 5 (5/11)
(b) 5 (6/11)
(c) 6 (8/11)
(d) 6 (6/11)
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 If daily wages of a man is double to that of a woman, how many men should work for 25 days to earn for 30 days are ₹
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
(e) 20
Explanation:
 A telecom service provider engages male and female operators for answering 1000 calls per day. A male operator can handle 40 calls per day whereas a female operator can handle 50 calls per day. The male and the female operators get a fixed wage of ₹ 250 and ₹ 300 per day respectively. In addition, a male operator gets ₹ 15 per call he answers and female operator gets ₹ 10 per call she answers. To minimize the total cost, how many male operators should the service provider employ assuming he has to employ more than 7 and maximum 12 number of the females?
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 10
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let us form both equations first:
40m + 50f = 1000
250 m + 300 f + 40 × 15 m + 50 × 10 × f = A
850m + 8000 f = A
When M and F are the number of Males and Females and A is the amount paid by the service provider.
Then the possible values of F are 8, 9, 10, 11, 12
If F = 8, then, M = 15
If F = 9, 10, 11 then M will not be an integer while F = 12 then M will be 10.
By putting F = 8 and M = 15, A = 18800. When F = 12 and M = 10, then A = 18100.
Hence the number of males will be 10.
 Published in TIME AND WORK
RATIO AND PROPORTION QUIZ 001
 Out of the total 390 students studying in a college of Arts and Science, boys and girls are in the ratio of 7 : 6 respectively and the number of students studying Arts and Science are in the ratio of 3 : 7 respectively. The boys and girls studying Arts are in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. How many boys are studying Science?
(a) 52
(b) 65
(c) 115
(d) 158
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Given, boys and girls are in the ratio of 7 : 6,
So, Number of boys = 7/13 x 390 = 210
Number of girls = 390 – 210 = 180
Students studying Arts and Science are in the ratio of 3 : 7,
Number of students studying Arts = 3/10 x 390 = 117
Number of students studying Science = 390 – 117 = 273
Also boys and girls studying Arts are in the ratio of 4 : 5,
Number of boys studying arts = 4/9 x 117 = 52
Number of boys studying science = 210 – 52 = 158
 From a number of mangoes, a man sells half the number of existing mangoes plus 1 to the first customer, then sells 1/3rd of the remaining number of mangoes plus 1 to the second customer, then 1/4th of the remaining number of mangoes plus 1 to the third customer and 1/5th of the remaining number of mangoes plus 1 to the fourth customer. He then finds that he does not have any mangoes left. How many mangoes did he have originally?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 13
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the No. of mangoes that the man had originally = X
No. of mangoes sold balance
1st customer = (X/2) + 1 (X – 2)/2
2nd customer = (X – 2)/6 + 1 (X – 5)/3
3rd customer = (X – 5)/12 + 1 (X – 9)/4
4th customer = (X – 9)/20 + 1 0
(X – 9)/20 + 1= (X – 9)/4 => X = 14
3. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?
(a) 2:3:4
(b) 6:7:8
(c) 6:8:9
(d) 7:8:9
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Originally, let the number of seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology be 5x, 7x and 8x respectively.
Number of increased seats are (140% of 5x), (150% of 7x) and (175% of 8x).
(140 * 5x)/100 , (150 * 7x)/100 and ( 175 * 8x )/100
7x, (21/2)x and 14x.
The required ratio = 7x : (21/2)x : 14x
14x : 21x : 28x
2 : 3 : 4.
 4. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs. 4000, the new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit’s new salary?
(a) 17000
(b) 20000
(c) 25000
(d) 38000
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the original salaries of Ravi and Sumit be Rs. 2x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 2x + 4000 = 40
3x + 4000 57
57(2x + 4000) = 40(3x + 4000)
6x = 68,000
3x = 34,000
Sumit’s present salary = (3x + 4000) = Rs.(34000 + 4000) = Rs. 38,000.
5. The maximum marks per paper in 3 subjects in Mathematics , Physics and Chemistry are set in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 respectively. Giri obtained 40% in Mathematics, 60% in Physics and 35% in Chemistry papers. What is the overall percentage of mark that he secured?
(a) 44
(b) 32
(c) 50
(d) 60
(e) None of these
Explanation:
40*1/100 : 60*2/100 : 35*3/100 = 0.4:1.2:1.05
Overall % =100* [0.4+1.2+1.05]/1+2+3 = 265/6 = 44.16 = 44%
 Between two stations, the first, second and third class fares are in the ratio 9 : 7 : 2. The number of passengers travelling in a day are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2, respectively, in the above classes. If the sale of tickets generated revenue of Rs. 98,000 that day and if 200 passengers travelled by third class, what was the fare for a first class ticket?
(a) Rs. 84
(b) Rs. 92
(c) Rs. 106
(d) Rs. 126
(e) Rs. 116
Explanation:
Ratio of number of passengers is 5 : 3 : 2
If 200 passengers travelled by third class,
500 must have travelled by first class
Sum of ratio of amount collected
= (5 × 9 + 3 × 7 + 2 × 2) = 45 + 21 + 4 = 70
Amount collected from 1st class
= (45/70) x 98000 = Rs. 63,000
Fare for the first class
= Rs. (36000/500) = Rs. 126
 If 378 coins consist of Rs. 1, 50 paise and 25 paise coins, whose values are in the ratio of 13 : 11 : 7, the number of 50 paise coins will be
(a) 132
(b) 128
(c) 136
(d) 133
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 A certain product C is made of two ingredients A and B in the proportion of 2: 5. The price of A is three times that of B. The overall cost of C is Rs. 5.20 per kg including labour charges of 80 paisa per kg. Find the cost of B per kg?
(a) Rs. 8.40
(b) Rs. 4.20
(c) Rs. 4.80
(d) Rs. 2.80
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 A factory employs skilled workers, unskilled workers and clerks in the proportion 8:5:1 and the wage of a skilled worker, an unskilled worker and a clerk are in the ratio 5:2:3. When 20 unskilled workers are employed, the total daily wages of all amount to Rs. 3180. Find the daily wages paid to each category of employees.
(a) 2100, 800,280
(b) 2400, 480, 300
(c) 2400, 600, 180
(d) 2200, 560, 420
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 The cost of a bat increased by 10 per cent and the cost of a ball increased by 18 per cent. Before the price rise, the ratio of the cost of the bat to the cost of the ball was 9:2. If the cost of 12 bats and 54 balls before the price rise was Rs. C, what is their cost (in Rs.) now?
(a) 1.12 C
(b) 1.13 C
(c) 1.14 C
(d) 1.15 C
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 From a number of mangoes, a man sells half the number of existing mangoes plus 1 to the first customer, then sells onethird of the remaining number of mangoes plus 1 to the second customer, then onefourth of the remaining number of mangoes plus 1 to the third customer and onefifth of the remaining number of mangoes plus 1 to the fourth customer. He then finds that he does not have any mango left. How many mangoes did he have originally?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 13
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 7:9:12 and their spendings are in the ratio 8:9:15. If A saves one fourth of his income, then the savings of A, B and C are in the ratio of
(a) 69:56:48
(b) 47:74:99
(c) 37:72:49
(d) 56:99:69
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 On Republic Day, sweets were to be equally distributed among 450 children. But on that particular day, 150 children remained absent. Thus, each child got 3 sweets extra. How many sweets did each child get?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 Mr. Pandit owned 950 gold coins all of which he distributed amongst his three daughters Lalita, Amita and Neela. Lalita gave 25 gold coins to her husband, Amita donated 15 gold coins and Neeta made jewellery out of 30 gold coins. The new respective ratio of the coins left with them was 20:73:83. How many gold coins did Amita receive from Mr. Pandit?
(a) 380
(b) 415
(c) 400
(d) 350
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 The number of candidates writing three different entrance exams is in the ratio 4:5:6. There is a proposal to increase these numbers of candidates by 40%, 60% and 85% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased numbers?
(a) 14:15:16
(b) 12:15:19
(c)13:19:21
(d) 11:14:17
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Given ratio of number of candidates is 4:5:6
Let the number of candidates for 3 exams be 4k, 5k and 6k respectively.
After increasing, number of candidates become (140% of 4k), (160% of 5k) & (185% of 6k)
That is, (140x4k)/100, (160x5k)/100 and (185x6k)/100
= 56k/10, 80k/10 and 111k/10
Now, the required new ratio = 56k/100 : 80k/10 : 111k/10
= 56 : 80 : 111
Hence the answer is option d.
 Published in RATIO AND PROPORTION
PERCENTAGE QUIZ 001
 A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number is?
(a) does not change
(b) decreases by 2%
(c) increases by 4%
(d) decreases by 4%
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Here, x = 20 and y = – 20
Therefore, the net % change in value
= ( x + y + xy/100)%
= [20 – 20 + {20 x ( 20)}/100]% or – 4%
Since the sign is negative, there is a decrease in value by 4%.
 If the income of Mohan is 150% higher than Mahesh, then by what percent the income of Mahesh is less than Mohan?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 45%
(e) None of these
Explanation:
(c); Required percentage = (150/250) x 100% = 60%
 A man’s wages were decreased by 50%. Again, the reduced wages were increased by 50%. He has a loss of?
(a) 35%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Here, x = – 50 and y = 50
Therefore, the net % change in value
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [ 50 + 50 + ( 50) x (50)/100]% or – 25%
Since the sign is negative, there is loss of 25%
 By selling 45 lemons for Rs 40, a man loses 20 %. How many should he sell for Rs 24 to gain 20 % in the transaction?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 22
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 In an election between two candidates, 75 % of the voters cast their votes, out of which 2% of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 9261 votes which were 75% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of votes.
(a) 13000
(b) 17000
(c) 19000
(d) 16800
(e) 12000
Explanation:
Let the total number of votes enrolled are x.
Number of votes cast = 75% of x
Valid votes = 98% of 75% of x
Now, as 9261 is the 75% of valid casted votes so,
75% of 98% of 75% of x = 9261
=>(75×98×75×x)/(100×100×100)=9261=>x=16800
 Rahul’s Mathematics test had 75 problems, 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra, 35 geometry problems. Although he answered 70% of arithmetic, 40% of arithmetic and 60% of geometry problems correctly, still he got less than 60% problems right. How many more questions he would have to answer more to get passed
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 9
Explanation:
Number of questions attempted correctly = (70% of 10 + 40% of 30 + 60% of 35)
= 7 + 12 + 21 = 40.
Questions to be answered correctly for 60% = 60% of total questions
= 60 % of 75 = 45.
He would have to answer 45 – 40 = 5
 Teacher took exam for English, average for the entire class was 80 marks. If we say that 10% of the students scored 95 marks and 20% scored 90 marks then calculate average marks of the remaining students of the class.
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 75
(d) 60
(e) 80
Explanation:
Let’s assume that total number of students in class is 100 and required average be x.
Then from the given statement we can calculate :
(10 * 95) + (20 * 90) + (70 * x) = (100 * 80)
=> 70x = 8000 – (950 + 1800) = 5250
=> x = 75.
 40% of Ram’s marks is equal to 20% of Rahim’s marks which percent is equal to 30% of Robert’s marks. If Robert’s marks is 80, then find the average marks of Ram and Rahim?
(a) 90
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 130
(e) 140
Explanation:
Given, 40% of Ram’s marks = 20% of Rahim’s marks = 30% of Robert’s marks.
Given, marks of Robert = 80
30% of 80 = 30/100 * 8 = 24
Given, 40% of Ram’s marks = 24.
=> Ram’s marks = (24 * 100)/40 = 60
Also, 20% of Rahim’s marks = 24
=> Rahim’s marks = (24 * 100)/20 = 120
Average marks of Ram and Rahim = (60 + 120)/2 = 90.
 Anil spends 40% of his income on rent, 30% of the remaining on medicines and 20% of the remaining on education. If he saves Rs. 840 every month, then find his monthly salary?
(a) 1800
(b) 2500
(c) 2700
(d) 2300
(e) 3000
Explanation:
Let’s Anil’s salary be Rs. 100.
Money spent on Rent = 40% of 100 = Rs. 40.
Money spent on medical grounds = 30% of (100 – 40) = 3/10 * 60 = Rs. 18.
Money spent on education = 20% of (60 – 18) = 1/5 * 42 = Rs. 8.40
Anil saves 100 – (40 + 18 + 8.40) i.e., Rs. 33.60
for 33.6 —> 100 ; 840 —> ?
Required salary = (840/33.6) * 100 = Rs. 2500
 A vendor fixed Selling Price of a product at 40% above the cost price. He sells half the stock at this price, onequarter of that stock at a discount of 25% on the original selling price and rest at a discount of 30% on the original selling price. Find the gain percentage all together?
(a) 20.75%
(b) 0.1575
(c) 0.1475
(d) 0.1675
(e) none of these
Explanation:
Let CP = 100;
marked price=140;
Revenue = [(1/2)*140 + (1/4)*0.75*140 + (1/4)*0.7*140] = 70 + 26.25 + 24.5 = 120.75;
% profit = 20.75/100 = 20.75%
 From the salary of Rahul, 20% is deducted as house rent, 10% of the rest he spends on children’s education and 10% of the balance, he spends on clothes. After this expenditure he is left with Rs 1,377. His salary is?
(a) Rs 2,125
(b) Rs 2,040
(c) Rs 2,100
(d) Rs 2,200
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Suppose that his salary = Rs 100
House rent = Rs 20, balance = Rs 80
Expenditure on education = Rs (10 x 80)/100 = Rs 8
Balance = Rs 72
Expenditure on clothes Rs (10 x 72)/100 = Rs 7.2
Balance now = Rs 64.8
If balance is Rs 64.8, salary = Rs 100
If balance is Rs 1,377, salary
= Rs (100 x 1377) / 64.8
= Rs 2,125
 In a class, 60% of the students are boys and in an examination, 80% of the girls scored more than 40 marks (Maximum Marks:150). If 60% of the total students scored more than 40 marks in the same exam, what is the fraction of the boys who scored 40 marks or less.
(a) 8/15
(b) 2/5
(c) 4/5
(d) 1/5
(e) none of these
Explanation:
Assume Total no of students = 100
60% of the students are boys. so Boys=60,Girls=40
No. of girls who scored more than 40 marks = 80% of girls = 80% of 40 = 32.
No. of students who scored more than 40 marks = 60% of Total Students = 60
Therefore No. of boys who scored more than 40 marks = 6032=28
No. of boys who scored less= Total boys – Boys(scored more) = 6028=32
Fraction=(scored less)/Total boys = 32/60 =8/15
 A man purchases some oranges at the rate of 25 for rupee 100 and same amount of oranges at the rate of 50 for rupees 100. He mixes them and sell at the rate of 25 for rupees 75. Find the profit/loss percentage.
(a) 4% loss
(b) 4% profit
(c) 5% loss
(d) No profit no loss
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let man buys X unit of oranges at the rate of 25 for rupee 100 and X unit of oranges at the rate of 50 for rupee 100.
CP = (100/25)* X + (100/50)*X = 6X
SP = (75/25)*2X = 6X
So, no profit no loss
 A shopkeeper bought 600 oranges and 400 bananas. He found 15% of oranges and 8% of bananas were rotten. Find the percentage of fruits in good condition.
(a) 80%
(b) 70.08%
(c) 87.8%
(d) 90%
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Total number of fruits shopkeeper bought = 600 + 400 = 1000
Number of rotten oranges = 15% of 600
= 15/100 × 600
= 9000/100
= 90
Number of rotten bananas = 8% of 400
= 8/100 × 400
= 3200/100
= 32
Therefore, total number of rotten fruits = 90 + 32 = 122
Therefore Number of fruits in good condition = 1000 – 122 = 878
Therefore Percentage of fruits in good condition = (878/1000 × 100)%
= (87800/1000)%
= 87.8%
15. A report consists of 20 sheets each of 55 lines and each such line consists of 65 characters. This report is reduced onto sheets each of 65 lines such that each line consists of 70 characters. The percentage reduction in number of sheets is closest to:
(a) 20%
(b) 5%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%
(e) None of these
Explanation:
No. of Characters in one line = 65
No. of characters in one sheet = No. of lines × No. of characters per line = 55 × 65
Total number of characters = No. of sheets × No. of characters in one sheet = 20 × 55 × 65 = 71500
If the report is retyped –
New sheets have 65 lines, with 70 characters per line
No. of characters in one sheet = 65 × 70
Number of pages required,
Hence, 16 pages will be required if report is retyped.
Hence, reduction of (20 – 16) = 4 pages
% reduction is = (4/20) x 100 = 20%
 Published in PERCENTAGE
PROFIT AND LOSS QUIZ 001
 A shopkeeper allows 10% discount on goods when he sells without credit. Cost price of his goods is 80% of his selling price. If he sells his goods by cash then his profit percent is
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 68
(d) 85
(e) 15
Explanation:
S.p = 100 C.P = 80 Profit = 10080 = 20 profit percent =20/80×100=25%
 ’Aman’ sold an article to ’Bijoy’ at a profit of 20%. ’Bijoy’ sold the same article to ’Chitra’ at a loss of 25% and ’Chitra’ sold the same article to ’Dev’ at a profit of 40%. If ’Dev’ paid Rs 252 for the article, then find how much did ’Aman’ pay for it?
(a) Rs 175
(b) Rs 200
(c) Rs 180
(d) Rs 210
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the article costs ‘X’ to Aman
Cost price of Bijoy = 1.2X
Cost price of Chitra = 0.75(1.2X) = 0.9X
Cost price of Dev = 1.4(0.9X) = 1.26X = 252
Amount paid by Aman for the article = Rs 200
 Cost price of 12 apples is equal to the selling price of 9 apples and the discount on 10 apples is equal to the profit on 5 apples. What is the percentage point difference between the profit percentage and discount percentage?
(a) 1.5 %
(b) 1.75 %
(c) 1.85 %
(d) 2 %
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Cost price of 12 apples is equal to the selling price of 9 apples,
Let the C.P. of one apple = Re. 1
C.P. of 9 apples = Rs. 9
S.P. of 9 apples = Rs. 12
Profit % of 9 apples = 3/9 x 100 = 33.33 %
Profit % of 1apple = 33.33/9 = 3.703 %
Profit % of 5 apples = 3.703 x 5 = 18.51 %
Given, the discount on 10 apples is equal to the profit on 5 apples,
Discount on 10 apples = 18.51 %
Discount on 1 apple = 1.851 %
Therefore, Profit % of 1 apple – Discount on 1 apple = 3.703 – 1.851 = 1.85 %
 A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit will be.
(a) 1.3
(b) 1.4
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.6
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the C.P. = x,
Then S.P. = (120/100)x = 6x/5
New S.P. = 2(6x/5) = 12x/5
Profit = 12x/5 – x = 7x/5
Profit% = (Profit/C.P.) * 100
=> (7x/5) * (1/x) * 100 = 140 %
 A sells a set of books to B for Rs. 300 at a profit of 25%. B sells it to C at a loss of 10%.
price paid by A?
 ii) What was the price paid by C to B?
(a) 240, 260
(b) 250, 270
(c) 250, 260
(d) 240, 270
(e) None of these
Explanation:
i. Price paid by A (cost price paid by A) = [100/(100+25)]*300 = Rs. 240.
ii. Price paid by C (Selling price by B to C) = [(10010)/100]*300 = Rs. 270.
 The sale price of an article including the sales tax is Rs. 616. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is:
(a) 500
(b) 560
(c) 340
(d) 780
(e) 800
Explanation:
110% of S.P. = 616
S.P. = (616 * 100)/110 = Rs. 560
C.P = (110 * 560)/112 = Rs. 500
 The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
(a) Rs 2000
(b) RS 5000
(c) Rs 5400
(d) Rs 6000
(e) Rs 7000
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x.
Then, (1920 – x)/x * 100 = (x – 1280)/x * 100
1920 – x = x – 1280
2x = 3200 => x = 1600
Required S.P. = 125 % of Rs. 1600 = 125/100 * 1600 = Rs. 2000.
 Virat and Dhoni wants to make 25% profit on selling good. Virat calculating it on cost price while Dhoni on the selling price, the difference in the profits earned by both being Rs. 100 and selling price being the same in both the cases. Find out the selling price of both goods?
(a) Rs.1500
(b) Rs.1600
(c) Rs.1200
(d) Rs.2000
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Profit = 25% = 1/4
Let CP of Virat’s article = 4x & Profit = x; SP = 4x + x = 5x
Let CP of Dhoni’s article = 4y = 5x —(1)[Selling price of Virat’s article = Cost Price of Dhoni’s article] x – y = 100—(2)
y = 500
Selling price = 5x = 4y = 2000
 The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?
(a) Rs. 36
(b) Rs. 37.50
(c) Rs. 42
(d) Rs. 44.25
(e) None of the above
Explanation:
 A trader sells two bullocks for Rs. 8,400 each, neither losing nor gaining in total. If he sold one of the bullocks at a gain of 20%, the other is sold at a loss of
(a) 20%
(b) 18(2/9)%
(c) 14(2/7)%
(d) 21%
(e) None of these
Explanation:
S.P. of two bullock = 8400 + 8400 = 16800 Rs.
 Gopal goes from place A to B to buy an article costing 15% less at B. although he spends Rs. 150 on travelling, still he gains Rs. 150 compared to buying it at A. His profit percent is:
(a) 4.5
(b) 6
(c) 7.5
(d) 8
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let CP = 2000
SP = 1700
so, after spend price = 1850
 A man bought a mobile and a laptop for Rs. 78000. He sold the mobile at a gain of 25% and the laptop at a loss of 15%, thereby gaining 5% on the whole. Find the cost price of mobile.
(a) Rs. 39000
(b) Rs. 34000
(c) Rs. 30000
(d) Rs. 38000
(e) Rs. 32000
Explanation:
 The percentage profit earned when a watch is sold for Rs. 546 is double the percentage profit earned when the same watch is sold for Rs. 483. If the marked price of the watch is 40% above the cost price, then what is the marked price of the watch?
(a) Rs. 588
(b) Rs 608
(c) Rs. 616
(d) Rs. 596
(e) Rs. 586
Explanation:
 The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is
(a) 25
(b) 18
(c) 16
(d) 15
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 A watch dealer incurs an expense of Rs.150 for producing every watch. He also incurs an additional expenditure of Rs. 30,000, which is independent of the number of watches produced. If he is able to sell a watch during the season, he sells it for Rs. 250. If he fails to do so, he has to sell each watch for Rs. 100.If he produces 1500 watches, what is the number of watches that he must sell during the season in order to breakeven, given that he is able to sell all the watches produced?
(a) 580
(b) 620
(c) 650
(d) 700
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Total cost to produced 1500 watches = (1500 × 150 + 30000) = Rs. 2,55,000
Let he sells x watches during the season, therefore number of watches sold after the season =
(1500 – x)250 × x + (1500 – x) × 100 = 150x + 150000
Now, breakeven is achieved if production cost is equal to the selling price.
150x + 150000 = 2,55,000
x = 700
 Published in PROFIT AND LOSS
PIPES AND CISTERNS QUIZ 001
 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 4 and 5 hours respectively. If they are used alternately for one hour each, the time taken to fill the tank is?
(a) 4 hrs 24 min
(b) 5 hrs
(c) 6 hrs
(d) 7 hrs
(e) 5hrs 50 min
Explanation:
A and B combine work 2 hour work=1/4+1/5=9/20
4hour work =9/20+9/20=9/10
remaining work=19/10=1/10
now it’s A’s turn so =1/10*4=2/5
to convert it into minute
5/2 = 60/X
cross multiplication x=60*2/5= 24 min
So Answer is 4hr and 24min
 A cistern has three pipes, A, B and C. The pipes A and B can fill it in 4 and 5 hours respectively and C can empty it in 2 hours. If the pipes are opened in order at 1, 2 and 3 A.M. When will the cistern be empty?
(a) 3 A.m.
(b) 3.30 A.M.
(c) 4 A.M.
(d) 5 P.M.
(e) 5.30 P.M.
Explanation:
In 1 hour A can fill the cistern in = 1/4hr.
In 1 hour B can fill the cistern in = 1/5hr.
In 1 hour C can empty the cistern in =1/2hr.
Now consider in X hrs cistern will be empty after opening C then C is working X hrs
B is working (X+1) hrs
A is working (X+2) hrs
So,
(X+2)/4 + (X+1)/5 – x/2=0
X=14hrs
So, Answer is 5 p.m
 A tank is filled in eight hours by three pipes A, B and C. Pipe A is twice as fast as pipe B, and B is twice as fast as C. How much time will pipe B alone take to fill the tank?
(a) 20
(b) 45
(c) 30
(d) 28
(e) 29
Explanation:
1/A + 1/B + 1/C = 1/8 (Given)
Also given that A = 2B and B = 2C
=> 1/2B + 1/B + 2/B = 1/8
=> (1 + 2 + 4)/2B = 1/8
=> 2B/7 = 8
=> B = 28 hours
 One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill tank in 36 min., then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in?
(a) 81 min
(b) 144 min
(c) 168 min
(d) 167 min
(e) 187 min
Explanation:
Let the slower pipe alone fill the tank in x min.
Then, faster pipe will fill it in x/3 min.
1/x + 3/x = 1/36
4/x = 1/36 => x = 144 min.
 A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
(a) 30 min
(b) 40 min
(c) 60 min
(d) 50 min
(e) 70 min
Explanation:
Part filled by (A + B) in 1 minute = (1/60 + 1/40) = 1/24
Suppose the tank is filled in x minutes.
Then, x/2(1/24 + 1/40) = 1
x/2 * 1/15 = 1 => x = 30 min.
 A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. Find the time required by the first pipe to fill the tank?
(a) 144 min
(b) 150 min
(c) 160 min
(d) 170 min
(e) 185 min
Explanation:
Let the slower pipe alone fill the tank in x minutes then faster will fill in x/3 minutes.
Part filled by slower pipe in 1 minute = 1/x
Part filled by faster pipe in 1 minute = 3/x
Part filled by both in 1 minute = 1/x+3/x=1/36
=>4/x=1/36
x =36∗4=144 min
 Three pipes A, B and C are connected to a tank. These pipes can fill the tank separately is 5 hrs, 10 hrs and 15 hrs, respectively. When all the three pipes were opened simultaneously, it was observed that pipes A and B were supplying water at threefourths of their normal rates for the 1st hrs after which they supplied water at the normal rate. Pipe C supplied water at twothirds of its normal rate for first 2 hrs, after which it supplied at its normal rate. In how much time, tank would be filled?
(a) 1.05 hrs
(b) 2.05 hrs
(c) 3.05 hrs
(d) 4.05 hrs
(e) 2.55 hrs
Explanation:
(c); The part of the tank filled by A and B in first two hrs
 Two pipes A and B can fill a water tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a third pipe C can empty at the rate of 3 gallons per minute. If A, B and C opened together fill the tank in 15 minutes, the capacity (in gallons) of the tank is:
(a) 180
(b) 150
(c) 120
(d) 60
(e) None of these
Explanation:
let the capacity of the tank be x gallons.
Quantity of water filled in the tank in 1 minute when all the
pipes A, B and C are opened simultaneously
For better understanding of the topic, please refer to our videos
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 There are two leakages in the bottom of a cistern. Both together empty the cistern in 12 hours. If the first leakage alone empties it in 30 hours, then in how many hours will the second leakage alone empty it?
(a) 20 hours
(b) 25 hours
(c) 30 hours
(d)15 hours
(e) 12 hours
Explanation:
For better understanding of the topic, please refer
to our videos and other relevant notes. Please visit
our website for more information.
 Pipe A, B and C are kept open and fill a tank in ‘t’ minutes. Pipe A is kept open throughout, pipe B is kept open for the first 10 minutes and then closed. Two minutes after pipe B is closed, pipe C is opened and is kept open till the tank is full. Each pipe fills an equal share of the tank. Furthermore, it is known that if pipes A and B are kept open continuously, the tank would be filled completely in ‘t’ minutes. How long will C alone take to fill the tank?
(a) 18
(b) 36
(c) 27
(d) 24
(e) 20
Explanation:
A is kept open for all t minutes and fills onethird the tank. Or, A should be able to
fill the entire tank in ‘3t’ minutes.
A and B together can fill the tank completely in t minutes.
A takes 60 minutes to fill the entire tank, B takes 30 minutes to fill the entire tank.
A is kept open for all 20 minutes. B is kept open for 10 minutes.
C, which is kept open for = (102) = 8 minutes also fills one third of the tank.
Or, c alone can fill the tank in = (8*3) = 24 minutes.
 Two taps can fill a tank in 20 mins and 30 mins respectively. There is an outlet tap at exactly half level of that rectangular tank which can pump out 50 litres of water per minute. If the outlet tap is open, then it takes 24 mins to fill an empty tank. What is the volume of the tank?
(a) 1200 litres
(b) 1500 litres
(c) 1800 litres
(d) 2400 litres
(e) None of these
Explanation:
12. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hrs faster than the first pipe and 4 hrs slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is
(a) 6 hrs
(b) 10 hrs
(c) 15 hrs
(d) 30 hrs
(e) None of these
Explanation:
13. A bathtub can be filled by a cold water pipe in 20 mins and by a hot water pipe in 30 mins. A person leaves the bathroom after turning on both pipes simultaneously and returns at the moment when the bathtub should be full. Finding however, that the waste pipe has been open, he now closes it. In 3 mins more the bathtub is full. In what time would the waste pipe empty it?
(a) 38 mins
(c) 43 mins
(c) 45 mins
(d) 48 min
(e) None of these
Explanation:
14. Pavan builds an overhead tank in his house, which has three taps attached to it. While the first tap can fill the tank in 12 hrs, the second one takes one and a half times more than the first one to fill it completely. A third tap is attached to the tank which empties it in 36 hrs. Now, one day, in order to fill the tank. Pavan opens the first tap and after two hrs opens the second tap as well. However, at the end of the sixth hour, he realizes that the third tap has been kept open right from the beginning and promptly closes it. What will be the total time required to fill the tank?
(a) 8 hrs 48 mins
(c) 9 hrs 36 mins
(b) 9 hrs 12 mins
(d) 8 hrs 30 mins
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 Published in PIPES AND CISTERNS
AVERAGE QUIZ 001
 The average marks of Rahul in 10 papers is 80. If the highest and the lowest scores are not considered, the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, find the lowest?
(a) 55
(b) 60
(c) 62
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Total marks of 10 papers = 80 x 10 = 800
Total marks of 8 papers = 81 x 8 = 648
Total marks of two papers = (800 – 648) = 152
If highest total is 92, then the lowest total is
(152 – 92) = 60.
 The average daily wages of A, B and C is Rs 120. If B earns Rs 40 more than C per day and, A earns double of what C earns per day, the wages of A per day are?
(a) Rs 80
(b) Rs 120
(c) Rs 160
(d) Rs 100
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let daily wages of C = X
Then, daily wages of A = 2X
and daily wages of B = X + 40
Hence, average daily wages of A, B and C
= (X + 2X + X + 40) / 3 = (4X + 40)/3
Thus, (4X + 40)/3 =120
=>4X + 40 = 360
=>4X = 320
X = 80.
Therefore, Wages of A per day = 2 x 80 = Rs 160.
3. The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 61. What is the difference between the highest and lowest numbers?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8.
Then [x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) ] / 5 = 61.
or 5x + 20 = 305 or x = 57.
So, required difference = (57 + 8) – 57 = 8
4. Biswajit was asked to find the arithmetic mean of the numbers 3, 11, 7, 9, 15, 13, 8, 19, 17, 21, 14 and x. He found the mean to be 12. What should be the number in place of x ?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Clearly, we have (3 + 11 + 7 + 9 + 15 + 13 + 8 + 19 + 17 + 21 + 14 + x) / 12 = 12.
or 137 + x = 144 or x = 144 – 137 = 7.
5. The average salary of 90 employees in an organization is Rs.14,500 per month. If the no. of executives is twice the no. of clerks, then find the average salary of clerks?
(a) 11,500
(b) 12000
(c) 13200
(d) can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Explanation:
90 => 2:1=> 60:30
Total Salary = 60*salary of executive +30 * salary of clerk
90*14500 = 60*x+30*y
x, y not given so we can’t determine the answer.

 The average salary of 120 employees in a bank is Rs.15,000 per month. If the no. of Assistants is thrice the no of POs and the average salary of Assistants is 1/3rd of the average salary of Pos, then find the average salary of POs ?
(a) 18,000
(b) 25,000
(c) 36,000
(d) 30,000
(e) None of these
Explanation:
120 = 1:3 =30:90 = PO : Assistant
120*15000 = 30*x+ 90 *x/3
18,00,000 = 90x+90x/ 3
54,00,000*3 = 180x
x = 30000
 The average value of the properties of Akhil, Munna and Anil is Rs.130cr. The Property of Akhil is Rs. 20cr greater than the property value of Munna and Anil’s property value is Rs. 50cr greater than the Akhil’s property value. The value of Anil’s property is
(a) Rs. 120cr
(b) Rs. 170cr
(c) Rs. 100cr
(d) Rs. 150 cr
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Property value of Munna x
130*3 = x+x+20+x+20+50
390 = 3x+90
3x=300
X=100
Anil = 100+20+50 = 170
 The average monthly expenditure of a family was Rs. 2,200 during the first 3 months; Rs. 2,250 during the next 4 months and Rs. 3,120 during the last 5 months of a year. If the total savings during the year were Rs. 1,260, then the average monthly income was:
(a) Rs. 2,605
(b) Rs. 2,805
(c) Rs. 2,705
(d) Rs. 2,905
(e) Rs. 2,995
Explanation:
Total expenditure for the year
= [2200 × 3 + 2250 × 4 + 3120 × 5]
= 6600 + 9000 + 15600 = Rs. 31200
Total saving = Rs. 1260
Total income = expenses + savings = 31200 + 1260 = Rs. 32460
Average income = 32460/12 = Rs. 2705
 The average marks of 100 students were found to be 40. Later on it was discovered that a score of 53 was misread as 83. Find the correct average corresponding to the correct score.
(a) 38.7
(b) 39
(c) 39.7
(d) 41
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Average of 100 students = 40
Total = 40 × 100 = 4000
Error = 83 – 53 = 30 (high)
So correct average = 3970/100 = 39.7
 In a oneday cricket match, Agarkar, Sehwag, Sachin, Dravid and Ganguly scored an average of 39 runs. Dravid scored 7 more than Ganguly. Ganguly scored 9 fewer than Agarkar. Sehwag scored as many as Dravid and Ganguly combined; and Sehwag and Sachin scored 110 runs between them. How many runs did Sachin score?
(a) 47
(6)51
(c) 53
(d) 49
(e) None of the above
Explanation:
 Having scored 98 runs in the 19th innings, a cricketer increases his average score by 4. What will be his average score after the 19th innings?
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 22
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 A Mathematics teacher tabulated the marks secured by 35 students of 8th class. The average of their marks was 72. If the marks secured by Reema were written as 36 instead of 86, then find the correct average marks up to two decimal places.
(a) 73.41
(b) 74.3
(c) 72.43
(d) 73.43
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 The mean of five observations is 4 and their variance is 5.2. If three of these observations are 1, 2 and 6, then the other two are
(a) 2 and 9
(b) 3 and 8
(c) 4 and 7
(d) 5 and 6
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 If p, q, r be three positive numbers such that p > q > r. When the smallest number is added to the difference of the other two numbers, then the average of the resultant number and the original numbers except the smallest number is 21 more than the average of all the three original numbers. The value of (p q) is
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 63
(d) 42
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 The average age of A and B is 20 years. If C were to replace A, the average would be 19 and if C were to replace B, the average would be 21. The ages of A, B and C are (in years)
(a) 22, 17,16
(b) 22, 18, 20
(c) 30, 18, 15
(d) 23, 17 ,15
Explanation:
A + B = 2 x 20 ——(1)
C + B = 2 x 19 ———(2)
A + C = 2 x 21 ——–(3)
Now,
By adding equation (1), (2) and (3) we get,
A + B + C = 60 ———(4)
Subtracting equation (4) to equation (1) we get,
C = 20
Therefore,
B = 18
A = 22
 Published in AVERAGE
AGE PROBLEMS QUIZ 001
 Ten years ago, Kumar was thrice as old as Sailesh was but 10 years hence, he will be only twice as old. Find Kumar’s present age.
(a) 60 years
(b) 80 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 76 years
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let Kumar’s present age be x years and Sailesh’s present age be y years.
Then, according to the first condition,
x – 10 = 3(y – 10) or, x – 3y = – 20 ..(1)
Now. Kumar’s age after 10 years = (x + 10) years
Sailesh’s age after 10 years = (y + 10)
(x + 10) = 2 (y + 10) or, x – 2y = 10 ..(2)
Solving (1) and (2), we get x = 70 and y = 30
Kumar’s age = 70 years and Sailesh’s age = 30 years..
 Five years hence, father’s age will be three times the age of his son. Five years ago, father was seven times as old as his son. Find their present ages.
(a) 40 years and 10 years
(b) 42 years and 12 years
(c) 35 years and 5 years
(d) 41 years and 11 years
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the present age of father be x years and the present age of son be y years.
five year’s hence
x + 5 = 3(y + 5)
=>x – 3y 10 = 0 —–(1)
Five year’s ago
x – 5 = 7(y – 5)
=>x – 7y + 30 = 0 —–(2)
Solving Equations (1) and (2), we get
x = 40 and y = 10
Hence, present age of father is 40 years and present age of son is 10 years.
 A person’s present age is twofifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be onehalf of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?
(a) 32
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 40
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the mother’s age be x
Present age of the person = 2/5x
(2/5)x+8 = 0.5x +4
on solving we get x = 40
 The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence, father’s age will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
(a) 5:2
(b) 7:3
(c) 9:2
(d) 13:4
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the ages of father and son 10 years ago be 3x and x years respectively.
Then, (3x + 10) + 10 = 2[(x + 10) + 10]
3x + 20 = 2x + 40
x = 20.
Required ratio = (3x + 10) : (x + 10) = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3.
 Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 7 : 9, how old is Sachin?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 28
(d) 24.5
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let Rahul’s age be x years.
Then, Sachin’s age = (x – 7) years.
x – 7 /x = 7/ 9
9x – 63 = 7x
2x = 63
x = 31.5
Hence, Sachin’s age =(x – 7) = 24.5 years.
 The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
(a) 8, 20, 28
(b) 16, 28, 36
(c) 20, 35, 45
(d) 21, 30, 42
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let their present ages be 4x, 7x and 9x years respectively.
Then, (4x – 8) + (7x – 8) + (9x – 8) = 56
20x = 80
x = 4.
Their present ages are 4x = 16 years, 7x = 28 years and 9x = 36 years respectively.
 Suresh has three daughters namely Ramya, Anita and Kiran. Ramya is the eldest daughter of Mr. Suresh while Kiran is the youngest one. The present ages of all three of them are square numbers. The sum of their ages after 5 years is 44. What is the age of Ramya after two years?
(a) 15 years
(b) 13 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 17 years
(e) 16 years
Explanation:
Square numbers – a, b, c
(a + 5) + (b + 5)+ (c + 5) = 44
a + b + c = 44 – 15 = 29
Possible values of a, b, c = 4, 9, 16 [Out of 1, 4, 9, 16, 25]
Ramya’s present age = 16; after two years = 18
 Ajay got married 6 years ago. His present age is 5/4 times his age at the time of his marriage. Ajay’s brother was 5 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. What is the present age of Ajay’s brother?
(a) 22 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 19 years
(e) 15 years
Explanation:
Present age of Ajay = x ; Present age of Ajay’s sister = y
x = (x6)(5/4)
x = 30
present age of Ajay’s brother = 30 – 5 = 25
 The ratio between the present ages of A and B is 6:7. If B is 4 years older than A. What will be the ratio of the ages of A and B after 4 years?
(a) 8:7
(b) 7:8
(c) 1:8
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let A’s age and B’s age be 6X years and 7X years respectively
Then, 7X – 6X = 4
X = 4
Required ratio = (6X + 4) : (7X + 4) = (6*4+4) : (7*4 +4) =28 : 32 = 7 : 8
 Ram’s present age is three times his son’s present age and twofifth of his father’s present age. The average of the present ages of all of them is 46 years. What is the difference between the Ram’s son’s present age and Ram’s father’s present age?
(a) 68 years
(b) 88 years
(c) 58 years
(d) can not determined
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 The ratio of the ages of Anil and his son at present is 7 : 3. Six year hence, the ratio of the ages of the Anil’s wife and the son will be 2 : 1. Find the ratio of the present ages of Anil and his wife.
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 5 : 4
(d) Cannot be determined.
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let the present age of Anil and his son be 7x years and 3x years respectively.
Let the present age of the son’s mother be m years.
(m + 6) / (3x + 6) = 2 / 1
m + 6 = 6x + 12
m = 6x + 6
The ratio of the present ages of Anil and his wife =
7x / (6x + 6)
This cannot be found uniquely.
 Five years ago, Mr Sunil was thrice as old as his son and ten years hence he will be twice as old as his son. Mr. Sunil’s present age (in years) is
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 55
(e) None of these
Explanation:
Let Mr. Sunil’s age (in years) = X and his son’s age = Y
Then, X – 5 = 3(Y – 5)
i.e., X – 3Y + 10 = 0 —– ’(1)
and, X + 10 = 2(Y + 10)
i.e. X – 2Y – 10 = 0 —– (2)
Solving (1) and (2), we get Y = 20
Substituting Y in eq (1), we get X = 50
Hence, the present age of the father is 50.
 If the present age of A be is twice the present age of B. 18 years ago age of C was half the age of B six years hence. If the average of the present ages of A, B and C is 42 years. Find the age of A, 9 years hence?
(a) 69 years
(b) 70 years
(c) 73 years
(d) 77 years
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eightmember joint family is nearest to
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 24 years
(d) 23 years
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 A boy was asked of his age by his friend. The boy said, “The number you get when you subtract 25 times my age from twice the square of my age will be thrice your age.” If the friend’s age is 14, then the age of the boy is
(a) 28 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 25 years
(e) None of these
Explanation:
 Published in AGE PROBLEMS